Security

442 questions

Question 141Question

A IT technician needs to sanitize several high-performance NVMe solid-state drives (SSDs) that contain confidential financial data. The company plans to reassign these drives to non-sensitive internal workstations. Which of the following is the most appropriate data destruction method to render the data unrecoverable while leaving the drives fully operational for reuse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Execute a manufacturer drive purge utility or perform a cryptographic erase.

Answer

Executing a manufacturer drive purge utility or performing a cryptographic erase is the most appropriate method.
Executing a drive purge utility or cryptographic erase specifically targets flash-based media (SSDs/NVMe). It resets or destroys the encryption keys and clears all NAND flash blocks (including over-provisioned space), rendering data unrecoverable while leaving the drive hardware functional for future deployment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the media type and organizational requirement
The target drives are solid-state drives (SSDs/NVMe) and must be sanitized for reuse.
Different storage technologies (flash memory vs. magnetic platters) require distinct sanitization techniques.
2
Evaluate sanitization methods against hardware compatibility and reuse requirements
Degaussing is ineffective on flash storage. Physical destruction (shredding/drilling) renders the drives unusable. High-level formatting or partition deletion leaves data recoverable.
Solid-state drives wear-level data across NAND blocks, requiring firmware-level commands (Purge/Cryptographic Erase) to properly wipe all blocks including wear-leveled and reserved space.
3
Select the correct sanitization procedure
A cryptographic erase or manufacturer-provided ATA/NVMe Secure Erase utility sanitizes all flash memory while preserving drive functionality.
This meets security standards for sanitizing SSDs intended for reuse.

Key Concept

SSD Sanitization and Data Disposal Methods
Question 142Question

Match each security incident description on the left with the corresponding social engineering or threat type on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

An unauthorized individual carrying heavy equipment boxes asks an authorized employee to hold open a secure badge-access entrance.
A technician receives an email directing them to a malicious administrative portal featuring a domain name with a transposed character.
A remote worker receives a phone call from an attacker impersonating internal IT helpdesk staff requesting credential verification to resolve a pending ticket.
A malicious script installed on a database server is configured to execute and wipe records if a specific employee user account remains inactive for 30 days.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Holding a door open with permission describes Piggybacking. A spoofed URL with a transposed character describes Typosquatting. Impersonating IT personnel over the phone describes Pretexting. Code triggered by account inactivity describes a Logic bomb.
Each attack scenario matches its specific threat classification based on method and vector: Piggybacking relies on social courtesy for physical access, Typosquatting exploits web address spelling mistakes, Pretexting creates a fake persona/scenario to manipulate targets, and a Logic bomb executes malicious payloads when specific logical conditions occur.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze physical entry vectors.
Identified physical entry where the attacker uses a fake reason (holding heavy boxes) to obtain consent to enter past a badge reader as Piggybacking.
Unlike tailgating, piggybacking relies on the explicit cooperation or courtesy of an authorized user.
2
Analyze domain-based attack vectors.
Identified domain misspelling intended to deceive users into visiting a fake login page as Typosquatting.
Typosquatting relies on user typographical mistakes when typing web addresses.
3
Analyze phone-based social engineering scenarios.
Identified credential solicitation under the guise of an IT support technician resolving a ticket as Pretexting.
Pretexting involves establishing a believable pretext or fake identity to elicit confidential data.
4
Analyze programmatic threat execution conditions.
Identified dormant malicious code set to execute under specific logical conditions as a Logic bomb.
Logic bombs execute payload actions only when predetermined criteria (e.g., time elapsed, missing account activity) are met.

Key Concept

Social Engineering Tactics and Threat Vectors
Question 143Question

A corporate IT technician is reviewing several recent security incident logs and employee reports across different departments. Match each security incident scenario on the left with its corresponding social engineering or threat classification on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A targeted email sent specifically to the Chief Financial Officer containing personalized information to trick them into approving an urgent wire transfer.
An attacker compromises a niche industry news portal regularly visited by the company's software engineers to quietly infect their systems with malware.
A fake company-wide alert email claiming a severe zero-day vulnerability exists and instructing employees to manually delete a vital operating system file.
Infected USB flash drives labeled 'Executive Compensation Review' left in the company breakroom to entice curious employees to plug them into workstation computers.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The targeted email to the CFO matches Whaling; the compromised industry portal matches Watering hole attack; the fake alert urging deletion of system files matches Security hoax; and leaving labeled USB drives in the breakroom matches Baiting.
Each attack vector relies on distinct delivery mechanisms and victim targets. Whaling targets high-profile executives like the CFO. Watering hole attacks infect popular third-party sites used by target employees. Security hoaxes trick users into taking self-destructive actions via false alarms. Baiting uses physical objects like flash drives to entice user interaction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the target and vector of the first scenario involving the CFO.
Identified high-level executive targeting for financial wire transfer fraud.
Whaling specifically describes phishing aimed at high-ranking executives (C-level officers).
2
Examine the compromised third-party news portal scenario.
Identified strategic web compromise of a site frequently visited by target staff.
Watering hole attacks infect trusted websites commonly frequented by a target group rather than attacking the company network directly.
3
Evaluate the fake security email instructing file deletion.
Identified psychological manipulation leading to intentional user self-harm.
Security hoaxes create false sense of urgency to trick users into harming their own systems.
4
Review the physical USB flash drive scenario in the breakroom.
Identified physical media baiting attempting to exploit curiosity.
Baiting involves leaving malware-laden physical media in accessible places to lure targets into connecting them.

Key Concept

Social Engineering Tactics and Threat Classifications
Question 144Question

An employee contacts the IT help desk reporting that their corporate desktop is displaying continuous pop-up advertisements and experiencing unusual performance delays. A support technician inspects the computer and identifies symptoms of an active adware infection. According to the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process, which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Quarantine the compromised desktop by disconnecting its network connection.

Answer

Quarantine the compromised desktop by disconnecting its network connection.
Following the standard CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process, once malware symptoms are identified (Step 1), the immediate next step is to quarantine the infected system (Step 2). Disconnecting the network interface isolates the system and prevents potential lateral movement of the infection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the current step in the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process.
The technician has completed Step 1 (Identify malware symptoms).
Recognizing rogue pop-ups and performance issues confirms the presence of malware.
2
Determine the mandatory next step in the standard sequence.
Step 2 is to quarantine the infected system.
Quarantining (disconnecting network/Wi-Fi) prevents the malware from spreading to other systems on the network or communicating with remote command-and-control servers.

Key Concept

CompTIA 7-Step Malware Remediation Process (Step 2: Quarantine infected systems)
Question 145Question

A technician is preparing to dispose of several retired solid-state drives (SSDs) that previously stored confidential company files. Which of the following methods will ensure that the data on these flash-based drives is completely unrecoverable?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Physical shredding of the solid-state drives

Answer

Physical shredding of the solid-state drives is the correct method to ensure data on flash-based media is completely destroyed.
Physical shredding pulverizes the drive assembly and internal flash memory chips, physically destroying the storage media and ensuring data cannot be recovered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the storage media technology.
The media consists of solid-state drives (SSDs), which store data electronically on NAND flash memory chips rather than magnetically on spinning platters.
Data destruction techniques depend heavily on whether media is magnetic or flash-based.
2
Evaluate disposal methods against SSD architecture.
Degaussing relies on magnetic fields and fails on SSDs. High-level formatting and deleting partitions leave underlying data recoverable.
Only physical destruction (like shredding or pulverizing) guarantees destruction of non-magnetic flash chips when cryptographic erase or specialized drive sanitization tools are not utilized.
3
Select the proper sanitization/disposal protocol.
Shredding physically destroys the storage chips, ensuring permanent data destruction.
Destruction of physical IC chips renders data retrieval completely impossible.

Key Concept

Disposal and Sanitization Methods for Solid-State Storage
Estimated Time:45s
Question 146Question

Match each physical security control mechanism on the left with its primary protective function or implementation objective on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Air gap
Security guard
Bollard
Smart card reader with PIN pad

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Air gap matches physical isolation from network connections; Security guard matches providing real-time human discretion against tailgating; Bollard matches preventing vehicular impact; Smart card reader with PIN pad matches multi-factor physical entry authentication.
Air gaps enforce absolute physical network isolation; security guards offer dynamic human judgment to stop tailgating and monitor entry points; bollards physically obstruct vehicle ramming attempts; and smart card readers combined with PIN pads enforce multi-factor authentication (something you have plus something you know) for secure area access.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary threat vector or physical barrier mechanism for each mechanism on the left.
Air gap deals with network isolation; Security guard provides human monitoring; Bollards address vehicle threats; Smart card + PIN provides two-factor access control.
Each physical security control target matches a distinct physical or operational vulnerability.
2
Match each physical control to its exact protective function.
Pair Air gap to total network disconnection, Security guard to active human anti-tailgating enforcement, Bollard to vehicle defense, and Smart card with PIN pad to multi-factor entry control.
Accurate pairing ensures correct mapping of physical controls to enterprise security goals.

Key Concept

Physical Security Controls
Question 147Question

A user contacts the help desk stating that whenever they attempt to run a software installer on their Windows workstation, the screen dims and a pop-up prompt asks for permission to allow the app to make changes to the device. Which Windows security feature generates this prompt to restrict unauthorized system modifications?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: User Account Control

Answer

User Account Control is the feature that prompts users for permission before executing applications that require administrative rights.
User Account Control (UAC) is the Windows feature designed to prevent potentially harmful program changes by requiring administrative confirmation or credentials on a dimmed Secure Desktop before administrative commands execute.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the reported symptom
The screen dims and a notification requests permission to allow an application to make changes to the operating system.
This behavior (the Secure Desktop dimming and popping up a consent/credential dialog) is a hallmark of administrative privilege checks in Windows.
2
Map the behavior to the corresponding Windows security tool
User Account Control (UAC) manages administrative token elevation and alerts users when software attempts system-level modifications.
UAC ensures applications run in the security context of a standard user account unless elevated by an administrator.

Key Concept

Windows User Account Control (UAC) privilege elevation prompts
Question 148Question

A systems technician is deploying a wireless network across several retail store locations. Management mandates that store associates log in using their individual Active Directory credentials. To protect against rogue access points, client handhelds must validate the RADIUS server's identity using a digital certificate. However, management explicitly prohibits the deployment and maintenance of individual client-side digital certificates due to administrative overhead. Which of the following wireless authentication configurations should the technician implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol)

Answer

PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) provides centralized Active Directory user authentication while requiring a digital certificate only on the RADIUS server.
The selection specifying PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) is correct because PEAP establishes an encrypted TLS tunnel using a digital certificate hosted strictly on the RADIUS authentication server. This allows client devices to verify the server's identity to prevent rogue access point attacks, while enabling employees to authenticate using their standard Active Directory credentials (via MS-CHAPv2 inside the tunnel) without requiring client-side certificates.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze authentication account requirements.
The requirement for individual Active Directory user accounts necessitates an enterprise 802.1X authentication framework integrated with RADIUS.
Personal authentication modes (PSK or SAE) rely on shared passphrases rather than domain user credentials.
2
Evaluate certificate requirements for server and client endpoints.
The client must authenticate the server (requiring a server certificate), but clients must not require individual certificates.
This constraint eliminates EAP-TLS, which mandates dual-sided (server and client) digital certificate deployment.
3
Select the EAP type matching the certificate and user authentication criteria.
PEAP establishes a secure TLS tunnel using only the server's certificate, through which internal password-based methods (such as MS-CHAPv2) carry the domain credentials.
PEAP satisfies both requirements: server validation via certificate and zero client-certificate overhead.

Key Concept

EAP Protocol Differences in 802.1X Enterprise Wireless Security
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 149Question

An enterprise desktop administrator is responding to a malware incident on a Windows 11 workstation. The host has already been physically isolated from the local network, and System Restore has been disabled to prevent malicious persistence in volume shadow copies. Upon attempting to launch the installed anti-malware software to update definition files and clean the system, the malware actively terminates the security application processes and blocks network adapter configuration changes. Which action should the administrator take next to successfully proceed with system remediation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Boot the system into Safe Mode or an isolated Pre-installation Environment (PE) to update definitions via clean removable media and execute the remediation scan.

Answer

Boot the system into Safe Mode or an isolated Pre-installation Environment (PE) to update definitions via clean removable media and execute the remediation scan.
According to the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process, after isolating the system and disabling System Restore, the technician must remediate the machine (Step 4). When active malware prevents normal operation or updates by killing security processes, booting into Safe Mode or using a Pre-installation Environment (PE) bypasses the malware's autostart mechanisms. Signatures can then be loaded from external media and full scans executed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze current step in the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process
System is isolated (Step 2) and System Restore is disabled (Step 3). The current objective is Remediation (Step 4).
Remediation requires updating anti-malware definitions and running scans/removal tools.
2
Address active malware self-defense mechanisms preventing normal scanner execution
Recognize that active malware blocking security executables must be suppressed.
Malware running with administrative privileges in standard boot mode can terminate security processes and block network sockets.
3
Select the appropriate boot environment and offline update method
Booting into Safe Mode or a WinPE environment restricts background startup items, enabling offline signature application via removable media and clean scan execution.
Safe Mode loads minimal drivers, preventing the malicious software from executing its defensive process-termination scripts.

Key Concept

CompTIA 7-Step Malware Remediation Process - Step 4: Remediate Infected Systems
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 150Question

A tier-2 helpdesk technician is providing remote assistance to a user on a Windows 11 Enterprise workstation. Whenever an administrative command or application requiring privilege elevation is launched during the remote session, the technician's remote screen goes completely black, and control is temporarily lost until the local user interacts with the prompt. Corporate policy requires that User Account Control (UAC) remain active and continue prompting for elevation. Which Local Security Policy setting should the technician modify on the target workstation to allow remote management tools to display and interact with elevation prompts without turning off UAC?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disable the 'User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' policy setting.

Answer

Disable the 'User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' policy setting.
When UAC triggers an elevation prompt, Windows switches to the Secure Desktop by default to prevent malicious applications from intercepting user credentials. Because standard user-mode remote control software cannot capture the Secure Desktop, the remote session displays a black screen. Disabling the policy setting 'User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' via secpol.msc forces UAC prompts to appear on the standard user desktop, allowing remote support agents to view and handle prompts while maintaining active UAC elevation rules.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the technical symptom described in the remote administration scenario.
Identified that the remote viewer goes black because Windows UAC switches context to the Secure Desktop (Winlogon desktop running at SYSTEM privileges), which non-system level remote software cannot screen-capture.
By default, UAC dims the desktop and isolates the credential prompt on a separate desktop to prevent software hooks or malware spoofing.
2
Evaluate the administrative requirement against possible UAC policy adjustments.
UAC notifications must remain enabled, ruling out solutions that bypass or turn off elevation prompts.
Corporate policy dictates that administrative privileges must still require explicit elevation approval.
3
Select the specific Local Security Policy (secpol.msc) setting that modifies desktop switching behavior while retaining prompts.
Disabling 'User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' presents UAC prompts on the interactive desktop.
This allows the remote support agent's application mirror to capture the prompt window and receive remote keyboard/mouse inputs.

Key Concept

Windows UAC Secure Desktop vs Interactive Desktop Isolation in Remote Administration
Question 151Question

A desktop administrator is configuring Local Security Policy and User Account Control (UAC) settings on standalone Windows 11 Pro workstations to harden end-user systems. Which TWO configuration settings or UAC behaviors accurately describe proper administrative enforcement in this environment? (Select TWO.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Configuring 'User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for standard users' to 'Automatically deny elevation requests' prevents standard users from receiving a credential prompt when attempting administrative tasks.; Enabling 'User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' isolates the prompt by dimming the desktop and preventing software-based interaction from unprivileged processes.

Answer

The two correct answers are: setting the standard user elevation behavior policy to automatically deny requests, and enabling the secure desktop feature for elevation prompts.
Configuring the elevation prompt behavior for standard users to automatically deny elevation requests strictly enforces least privilege by blocking credential prompts for non-admin users. Additionally, enforcing the Secure Desktop for elevation prompts isolates the UAC dialog on a separate visual desktop layer, preventing malicious software from capturing or injecting user input during elevation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze standard user elevation policies in Local Security Policy
Configuring UAC to 'Automatically deny elevation requests' ensures standard users cannot enter administrator credentials to elevate permissions.
This policy enforces strict least privilege by preventing standard accounts from initiating privilege escalation.
2
Evaluate Secure Desktop isolation settings
Enabling 'Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation' runs prompts in an isolated desktop context.
Secure Desktop prevents malware or background applications from sending fake clicks or keystrokes to elevate privileges.

Key Concept

Windows User Account Control and Local Security Policy configuration
Question 152Question

An organization is preparing to permanently decommission a batch of legacy storage media containing sensitive customer information in compliance with corporate security governance. Arrange the following steps of the hardware decommissioning and sanitization lifecycle in the correct order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct order of steps for the media decommissioning process is: 1) Record the serial numbers in the chain-of-custody log, 2) Perform a cryptographic wipe or logical purge, 3) Execute physical destruction of the storage media, and 4) Obtain and archive a signed Certificate of Destruction.
The correct lifecycle sequence begins by establishing a chain of custody through logging serial numbers. Next, a logical purge or cryptographic wipe is performed to protect data in transit or handling. After that, physical destruction permanently destroys the storage media. Finally, a Certificate of Destruction is acquired and archived to prove regulatory compliance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify initial asset tracking step
Record media serial numbers in the chain-of-custody documentation.
Chain of custody must be established immediately upon removing media from production to maintain asset accountability.
2
Perform preliminary sanitization
Perform a cryptographic erase or logical purge.
Erasing data logically mitigates risk during physical handling or transport prior to permanent physical destruction.
3
Destroy physical media
Execute physical destruction (shredding).
Physical destruction renders the physical sub-assembly permanently unusable.
4
Finalize compliance records
Obtain and archive the Certificate of Destruction.
Formal documentation confirms completion of the disposal process for regulatory compliance and audit purposes.

Key Concept

Chain of Custody and Data Destruction Lifecycle
Question 153Question

A desktop technician is configuring Local Security Policy (secpol.msc) on a workstation running Windows 11 Pro in a shared lab environment. Management mandates that whenever a standard user account attempts an action requiring administrative privileges, Windows must automatically reject the elevation request without displaying a credential prompt. However, administrative users must retain the standard behavior of receiving a consent prompt on the Secure Desktop. Which Local Security Policy setting should the technician configure to meet the requirement for standard user accounts?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Set 'User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for standard users' to 'Automatically deny elevation requests'

Answer

Set 'User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for standard users' to 'Automatically deny elevation requests'
The Local Security Policy setting 'User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for standard users' specifies how Windows handles privilege elevation requests initiated by standard user accounts. Setting this policy to 'Automatically deny elevation requests' prevents standard users from receiving a credential prompt when attempting administrative tasks, returning an access denied message immediately while leaving administrator prompt behaviors untouched.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target user role and desired User Account Control (UAC) behavior
Standard users must have elevation requests automatically denied without seeing a credential prompt, while administrators keep consent prompts.
UAC policies distinguish between administrative accounts and standard user accounts.
2
Navigate to Local Security Policy (secpol.msc) under Security Settings > Local Policies > Security Options
Locate the granular UAC administrative policies.
Detailed UAC prompt behaviors for specific user account types are managed via Local Security Policy in Windows Pro/Enterprise editions.
3
Select the policy controlling standard user elevation prompt behavior
Configure 'User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for standard users' to 'Automatically deny elevation requests'.
This policy specifically forces Windows to return an access denied error whenever a standard user triggers an operation requiring elevation.

Key Concept

Windows Local Security Policy UAC Elevation Settings
Question 154Question

A logistics coordinator receives an automated SMS text message on their company-issued smartphone requesting an immediate credential verification via an included short link to prevent account termination. Upon clicking the link, the user is brought to a fake corporate portal that captures their credentials. Which of the following social engineering threat types best describes this attack vector?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Smishing

Answer

The attack vector described is smishing, which uses SMS text messaging to deliver fraudulent phishing links and collect sensitive credentials.
Smishing refers to phishing attacks that specifically utilize SMS text messaging to distribute deceptive links or urgent requests designed to harvest user credentials.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the delivery medium of the attack.
The attack was delivered via an SMS text message sent to a smartphone.
Determining the communication platform differentiates SMS-based attacks from voice-based or email-based attacks.
2
Analyze the goal of the deceptive message.
The message uses urgency to direct the victim to a fraudulent portal to harvest login credentials.
Phishing variants aim to trick users into handing over authentication data using counterfeit sites.
3
Classify the specific threat category based on medium and mechanism.
SMS + Phishing = Smishing.
Smishing is the precise CompTIA classification for phishing executed via text messages.

Key Concept

Identifying Social Engineering Delivery Vectors (Smishing)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 155Question

Match each storage data destruction or sanitization method on the left with its corresponding operational description on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Degaussing
Cryptographic Erase
Physical Shredding
Standard Overwriting

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Degaussing matches applying magnetic fields to magnetic drives; Cryptographic Erase matches deleting the encryption key on self-encrypting storage; Physical Shredding matches mechanically cutting media into fragments; Standard Overwriting matches replacing sectors with non-sensitive data for media reuse.
Each data disposal technique matches its specific media and operational mechanism: Degaussing disrupts magnetic domains on HDDs; Cryptographic Erase destroys decryption keys on self-encrypting solid-state drives; Physical Shredding mechanically pulverizes storage devices; and Standard Overwriting replaces readable sectors with non-sensitive patterns for device reuse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify magnetic-specific sanitization techniques
Degaussing relies on electromagnetic forces to sanitize magnetic HDDs and tapes.
Degaussing disrupts magnetic domains and is only effective on magnetic media, not solid-state storage.
2
Identify solid-state sanitization methods
Cryptographic Erase destroys the decryption key on self-encrypting SSDs.
Erasing the key instantly invalidates the encrypted ciphertext stored on flash chips.
3
Distinguish physical destruction from logical clearing
Physical shredding destroys hardware to prevent reuse, while standard overwriting replaces sector data so media can be reused.
Shredding is a physical disposal method, whereas overwriting is a logical clearing method.

Key Concept

Data Destruction and Disposal Methods
Question 156Question

A desktop technician has quarantined a Windows workstation that was infected with malware. Before executing a full anti-malware scan to clean the system, which TWO steps of the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process must be performed?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disable System Restore in Windows; Update the anti-malware signature definitions

Answer

The technician must disable System Restore in Windows and update the anti-malware signature definitions before scanning and cleaning the machine.
According to the CompTIA 7-step malware remediation process, once a machine is isolated (quarantined), the technician must disable System Restore (Step 3) so that infected system states are not preserved. Next, as part of remediation (Step 4), the technician must update anti-malware signature files before initiating the scan to ensure detection signatures are up to date.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the CompTIA 7-Step Malware Remediation Process order
Identify that Step 3 is Disable System Restore and Step 4 starts with updating anti-malware definitions prior to scanning.
Disabling System Restore prevents malware from preserving infected system files, and updating definitions ensures accurate detection.
2
Evaluate the prerequisite actions before running the scan
Select disabling System Restore and updating anti-malware definitions as required pre-scan tasks.
Pre-scan steps prepare the operating system and tools so the scan is effective and isolated.

Key Concept

CompTIA 7-Step Malware Remediation Process (Step 3: Disable System Restore; Step 4: Remediate infected systems by updating anti-malware and scanning)
Question 157Question

A desktop technician needs to change the User Account Control (UAC) settings on a Windows workstation to prevent notification prompts when software installation occurs. Place the following steps in the correct order to complete this configuration using the Graphical User Interface (GUI).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct operational order is: Open the Windows Control Panel, navigate to User Accounts and click Change User Account Control settings, drag the slider down to the Never notify setting, and click OK to confirm the changes.
Configuring UAC via the GUI follows a logical administrative path: launching the Control Panel, selecting the User Accounts applet, opening the UAC settings dialog, adjusting the notification slider to the desired level, and committing the change by saving and confirming elevation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Open the Windows Control Panel
Displays all Control Panel management applets
Control Panel provides access to administrative account settings
2
Select User Accounts and click Change User Account Control settings
Opens the UAC adjustment slider dialog window
This applet houses the slider for user privilege elevation notifications
3
Move the slider to Never notify
Sets the UAC threshold to its lowest security level
This level prevents UAC prompts from appearing when applications make changes
4
Click OK and confirm the elevation prompt
Saves and applies the updated UAC policy
Administrative rights are required to alter system-wide UAC behavior

Key Concept

Windows User Account Control (UAC) GUI Configuration
Estimated Time:45s
Question 158Question

An organization needs to secure the physical entrance of a sensitive server room to prevent tailgating, where an unauthorized person follows an authorized employee through a door. Which of the following physical security controls is designed specifically to enforce single-person entry and eliminate this risk?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An access control vestibule

Answer

An access control vestibule is specifically designed with interlocking doors to allow only one person to pass through at a time, effectively preventing tailgating.
An access control vestibule (also known as a mantrap) features two interlocking doors that require the outer door to be completely closed and secured before the inner door opens. This physically restricts movement so only one individual can pass through at a time, eliminating tailgating.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the physical security threat in the scenario.
The primary risk identified is tailgating (piggybacking), where an unauthorized individual enters behind an authorized person through a single access point.
Understanding the specific physical security threat dictates which control mechanism is required.
2
Evaluate the mechanism of an access control vestibule.
An access control vestibule consists of two interlocking doors. The first door must close and lock before the second door unlocks, isolating the person entering.
This physical design enforces single-person entry and prevents unauthorized entry behind an authorized user.
3
Compare against non-optimal or improper controls.
Proximity readers, privacy filters, and bollards address authentication, visual eavesdropping, and vehicle impact respectively, but none physically block tailgating.
Selecting the correct physical barrier requires matching the specific protective function to the threat.

Key Concept

Physical Security Access Controls and Tailgating Prevention
Question 159Question

A tier-2 desktop support technician is responding to an automated incident response alert on a Windows 11 domain-joined endpoint. The host machine is actively attempting unauthorized SMB connections to network shares and writing encrypted file headers across connected volumes. According to standard CompTIA malware remediation procedures, which of the following actions must the technician execute FIRST to properly contain the outbreak and prepare the operating system for remediation? (Select TWO.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disconnect all physical Ethernet cabling and disable active wireless network adapters on the endpoint.; Turn off System Protection and delete existing restore points on the infected system.

Answer

The technician must immediately quarantine the system by disabling all network interfaces and disable System Restore to purge infected restore points before initiating remediation.
Following symptom identification, the standard CompTIA malware remediation process dictates that technicians must first quarantine infected systems by disconnecting all network interfaces (Ethernet/Wi-Fi) to prevent lateral spread, and subsequently disable System Restore (System Protection) to clear volume shadow copies that may store malware files.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify symptoms and verify active threat containment requirements
The host exhibits ransomware behavior, propagating across SMB and encrypting data.
Immediate action must follow the CompTIA 7-step remediation framework starting after identification.
2
Quarantine the infected system (Step 2)
Disconnecting Ethernet cables and disabling Wi-Fi cuts off command-and-control access and halts lateral spread across network shares.
Preventing lateral movement to corporate assets is the immediate priority during an active ransomware outbreak.
3
Disable System Restore (Step 3)
Turning off System Protection purges existing restore points containing infected files and prevents automatic reinfection.
If System Restore is left enabled, malware stored inside shadow volumes can reinstall itself post-remediation.

Key Concept

CompTIA 7-Step Malware Remediation Process (Step 2: Quarantine & Step 3: Disable System Restore)
Question 160Question

A field service technician receives an urgent SMS text message on their corporate-managed smartphone stating that their Mobile Device Management (MDM) profile has expired and network access will be terminated within one hour. The message directs the technician to tap a shortened URL to re-authenticate with their Active Directory domain credentials. Which of the following social engineering threat types is best illustrated by this attack vector?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Smishing

Answer

Smishing
Smishing (SMS Phishing) is a form of social engineering that uses SMS text messaging on mobile devices to trick victims into providing sensitive credentials or navigating to malicious websites. In this scenario, the attacker leveraged a fake MDM expiration notification sent via SMS to harvest Active Directory credentials.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the delivery channel described in the security incident
Identified the primary delivery vector as an urgent SMS text message sent to a corporate mobile device.
Social engineering attacks are primarily categorized by their initial delivery medium and target scope.
2
Evaluate the objective and deceptive tactics used in the payload
The message creates artificial urgency (1-hour expiration) and includes a shortened hyperlink designed to steal domain credentials.
Creating urgency and incorporating fraudulent login links are hallmark features of phishing attacks.
3
Map the SMS delivery medium to the standard CompTIA threat classification
Concluded that SMS-based phishing is formally categorized as Smishing (Short Message Service phishing).
Phishing over SMS is specifically designated as smishing, distinguishing it from email phishing or voice phishing.

Key Concept

Social Engineering Threat Types - Smishing
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Security Practice Questions — CompTIA A+ (Core 1 & Core 2) — Page 8 | Examkin