Network Security

427 questions

Question 321Question

A network technician is configuring a newly established small office location. The security baseline mandates protection against offline dictionary password-cracking attacks while utilizing a shared secret for authentication, as well as requiring Protected Management Frames (PMF) to safeguard against wireless deauthentication attacks. Which wireless security deployment best fulfills these requirements?

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Answer: WPA3-Personal using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)

Answer

WPA3-Personal using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) is the correct deployment because it mandates Protected Management Frames (PMF) and utilizes SAE to mitigate offline dictionary attacks on shared credentials.
WPA3-Personal addresses key vulnerabilities of WPA2 by implementing Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), a cryptographic handshake that renders offline dictionary attacks ineffective. WPA3 standards also strictly enforce Protected Management Frames (PMF), preventing malicious actors from sending spoofed disconnect frames to wireless clients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze requirement 1: Protection against offline dictionary attacks using shared credentials
Identify that WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) based on Dragonfly Key Exchange to prevent offline dictionary attacks, unlike WPA2-Personal PSK.
WPA2-Personal four-way handshakes can be captured and cracked offline using brute-force/dictionary tools, whereas SAE prevents offline password guessing.
2
Analyze requirement 2: Mandatory Protected Management Frames (PMF)
Confirm that PMF (IEEE 802.11w) is required by default in WPA3 implementations.
PMF protects unicast and multicast management frames, preventing spoofed deauthentication and disassociation attacks.
3
Match combined requirements to options
Select WPA3-Personal with SAE.
It fulfills both the shared key authentication requirement with offline attack protection and mandatory PMF support.

Key Concept

Wireless Security Standards (WPA3-Personal SAE and PMF requirements)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 322Question

A network security administrator needs to restrict hosts in the Finance VLAN (10.50.10.0/2410.50.10.0/24) from accessing an internal accounting web server (10.50.20.1510.50.20.15) over port 80 (HTTP), while allowing all other network traffic between the subnets. The administrator configures a standard IPv4 Access Control List (`access-list 10 deny 10.50.10.0 0.0.0.255`) and applies it inbound on the router interface servicing the Finance VLAN.

Which statement best describes the outcome of this deployment?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Standard Access Control Lists filter traffic based solely on source IP address, resulting in all IP traffic from the Finance VLAN being blocked rather than only HTTP access to the target server.

Answer

Standard Access Control Lists filter traffic based solely on source IP address, resulting in all IP traffic from the Finance VLAN being blocked rather than only HTTP access to the target server.
Standard Access Control Lists only inspect the source IPv4 address in the packet header. Consequently, they cannot differentiate between traffic types (such as HTTP port 80 vs HTTPS port 443) or target destination IP addresses. Denying the source subnet in a standard ACL blocks all outbound IP communications from that subnet.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the ACL type used in the scenario.
Identified standard IPv4 ACL (`access-list 10`).
Standard ACLs only evaluate the source IPv4 address of incoming packets.
2
Evaluate the capabilities of standard ACLs against the requirement.
The requirement asks to filter based on destination IP (10.50.20.1510.50.20.15) and destination port (TCP 80). Standard ACLs cannot evaluate destination IP addresses, protocols, or port numbers.
Extended ACLs (numbered 100–199) are required to filter by destination IP, protocol, and port numbers.
3
Determine the packet disposition of the applied rule.
Applying `access-list 10 deny 10.50.10.0 0.0.0.255` matches all packets originating from the Finance VLAN and drops them completely.
Because port and destination details cannot be specified in a standard ACL, all traffic from the source network is blocked.

Key Concept

Standard vs. Extended Access Control Lists (ACLs)
Question 323Question

A network administrator is configuring remote monitoring across an untrusted WAN link to collect system metrics and notifications from branch office switches. The administrator must implement a security solution that ensures monitoring credentials and packet payloads remain encrypted for confidentiality, while also verifying packet integrity and authenticating the transmitting switch. Which of the following protocol configurations best satisfies these security requirements?

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Answer: SNMPv3 configured with AuthPriv mode

Answer

SNMPv3 configured with AuthPriv mode provides both authentication/integrity and payload encryption for confidentiality.
SNMPv3 AuthPriv (Authentication and Privacy) is the only option that addresses confidentiality, integrity, and authentication simultaneously by combining cryptographic hashing for message integrity and sender authentication with symmetric encryption (such as AES) for payload confidentiality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the security requirements specified in the scenario
Identified the need for Confidentiality (payload encryption), Integrity (detecting alterations), and Authentication (verifying sender origin).
Security controls within the CIA triad must be mapped directly to protocol capabilities.
2
Evaluate the security modes of network management protocols
SNMPv3 offers three security levels: NoAuthNoPriv (no security), AuthNoPriv (authentication and integrity via MD5/SHA, no encryption), and AuthPriv (authentication, integrity, and privacy/encryption via AES/DES).
Selecting AuthPriv guarantees all required elements of confidentiality, authentication, and integrity.

Key Concept

CIA Triad Application in Network Management Protocols
Question 324Question

A network security engineer is performing baseline administrative hardening on a newly deployed edge router to secure its management plane before production deployment. In what correct operational sequence should the engineer execute the following administrative hardening steps to establish secure remote management and enforce network access controls?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct operational sequence begins by defining the hostname, domain name, and generating 2048-bit RSA keys, followed by creating encrypted local admin credentials, configuring VTY lines for SSH Version 2 exclusively, applying a management subnet ACL to the VTY lines, and concluding with disabling unused services, unassigned ports, and default native VLAN reassignment.
The correct hardening sequence follows a logical dependency chain: crypto key generation relies on host/domain identifiers, administrative user accounts must exist before enabling SSH login on VTY lines, VTY access must be scoped to specific management subnets via ACLs, and general device surface reduction (disabling unused ports/services and native VLAN isolation) completes the hardening baseline.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Generate cryptographic host keys after defining the hostname and IP domain name.
The device instantiates the RSA key pair required by the SSH daemon.
SSH key generation fails unless an explicit domain name and hostname are present in the router configuration.
2
Configure encrypted local AAA/local administrative credentials and remove default accounts.
Authentication database is populated with secure admin account details.
Local credentials must exist so that SSH login requests can be authenticated securely.
3
Enforce transport input ssh on VTY lines and disable legacy cleartext management daemons.
Cleartext protocols like Telnet are disabled on management lines.
Restricting transport options prevents eavesdropping and credential interception across administrative sessions.
4
Attach a restrictive IPv4/IPv6 ACL to the VTY line configuration.
Inbound connection attempts from unauthorized subnets are dropped at the management boundary.
VTY ACLs minimize exposure by limiting management plane access to designated out-of-band or admin subnets.
5
Disable unneeded web/management services, shut down unassigned physical interfaces, and isolate native VLAN 1.
Attack surface is minimized across physical ports, web planes, and Layer 2 broadcast domains.
Layer 2 hardening and service suppression prevent unauthorized physical connections, web vulnerabilities, and VLAN hopping exploits.

Key Concept

Management Plane Baseline Hardening Workflow
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 325Question

A network administrator is documenting the cryptographic baselines for wireless security standards across company facilities. Match each wireless security protocol standard on the left with its primary encryption protocol and integrity mechanism on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3)

Matches

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Answer

WEP corresponds to RC4 with a 24-bit IV and CRC-32; WPA corresponds to TKIP with RC4 and Michael MIC; WPA2 corresponds to CCMP utilizing AES; WPA3 corresponds to SAE authentication with GCMP-256 encryption.
Each wireless security standard aligns strictly with its cryptographic design: WEP relies on RC4 with 24-bit IVs and CRC-32, WPA uses TKIP to wrap RC4 dynamic keys with Michael MIC, WPA2 standardizes CCMP using AES block ciphers, and WPA3 leverages SAE key exchange with GCMP-256 authenticated encryption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the cryptographic mechanism used by legacy WEP.
WEP uses RC4 with a short 24-bit IV and CRC-32 for payload validation.
This is the legacy standard susceptible to key recovery attacks within minutes.
2
Identify the transitional mechanisms introduced with WPA.
WPA introduced TKIP to dynamically rotate keys while maintaining RC4 hardware compatibility, using Michael MIC for tamper detection.
TKIP served as a backward-compatible firmware upgrade path from WEP.
3
Identify the core standard protocol mandated by WPA2.
WPA2 mandates CCMP, which uses AES in Counter Mode with CBC-MAC.
AES replacement of RC4 satisfies IEEE 802.11i security mandates.
4
Identify the next-generation protocol suite used by WPA3.
WPA3 mandates SAE (Dragonfly key exchange) to prevent offline dictionary attacks and uses GCMP-256 for enhanced data confidentiality.
SAE provides forward secrecy and replaces vulnerable PSK handshakes.

Key Concept

Wireless Security Standards Evolution and Cipher Pairings
Question 326Question

A network administrator is deploying security controls on a Layer 3 switch interface connecting a workstation VLAN (172.20.10.0/24172.20.10.0/24) to an internal Voice over IP (VoIP) server (172.20.90.25172.20.90.25). The policy requires allowing standard SIP call signaling and RTP media streams while restricting all other communication from the workstation subnet to the VoIP server. Which of the following statements correctly describe the requirements for this Access Control List (ACL) deployment? (Select TWO.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Permit statements for SIP signaling (TCP/UDP port 5060) and RTP media traffic (UDP ports) must be evaluated before the ACL's final implicit deny statement.; Because stateless ACLs do not track session state, return traffic for dynamically assigned RTP media stream UDP ports must be explicitly permitted or handled by stateful firewall inspection.

Answer

The correct requirements are that explicit permit statements for SIP signaling and RTP media traffic must precede the implicit deny rule, and that return traffic for stateless UDP connections must be explicitly permitted or managed by a stateful inspection engine.
Extended ACLs evaluate rules in sequential top-down order until a match is found. Specific permit rules for SIP signaling and RTP media streams must be listed above the implicit deny all statement to allow traffic to pass. Furthermore, because UDP protocols like RTP do not establish TCP connection states, a stateless router ACL requires explicit return rules or a stateful firewall to allow return media traffic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze ACL execution sequence and placement of permit/deny entries.
Recognize that ACLs execute top-down and terminate evaluation upon the first match. Permitting specific ports (SIP port 5060 and RTP UDP port ranges) must occur prior to the default implicit deny at the end of the access list.
Top-down processing means any traffic hitting a deny rule first will be dropped regardless of rules listed below it.
2
Evaluate stateless vs. stateful behavior for UDP traffic flows (SIP and RTP).
Identify that UDP is connectionless and stateless ACLs do not automatically track ephemeral port return paths.
Without stateful inspection or explicit return traffic ACL rules, two-way audio streams will fail due to blocked return packets.
3
Determine the appropriate ACL type (Standard vs. Extended) for Layer 4 port filtering.
Confirm that Standard ACLs inspect only source IP addresses and cannot perform protocol or port-based filtering.
Extended ACLs are required whenever filtering involves destination IP, protocol type (TCP/UDP), or port numbers.

Key Concept

Extended ACL Rule Processing and Stateful vs Stateless Traffic Filtering
Question 327Question

A network administrator is designing a wireless deployment for a corporate branch office. Security policy mandates individual user accountability, centralized credential management using an existing 802.1X RADIUS infrastructure, and enterprise-grade encryption. A junior technician proposes deploying WPA3-Personal with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to avoid the administrative overhead of deploying and managing digital certificates on client devices. Which of the following best explains why the technician's proposal fails to satisfy the organizational security compliance baseline?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: WPA3-Personal utilizes Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) with a shared password, which does not provide individual user authentication or integrate with 802.1X RADIUS servers.

Answer

WPA3-Personal utilizes Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) with a shared password, which does not provide individual user authentication or integrate with 802.1X RADIUS servers.
The requirement for individual user accountability and 802.1X RADIUS integration necessitates WPA3-Enterprise. WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which protects shared passphrases against dictionary attacks but still relies on a common secret among all users, rendering it incapable of providing individual user authentication or communicating with an 802.1X RADIUS server.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze organizational requirements
The scenario requires individual user accountability and centralized authentication integrated with an 802.1X RADIUS infrastructure.
Enterprise security baselines demand unique per-user accounting rather than shared access credentials.
2
Evaluate the proposed solution (WPA3-Personal with SAE)
WPA3-Personal uses SAE to secure pre-shared key (PSK) authentication across all connecting hosts using a single shared password.
SAE replaces the traditional PSK four-way handshake to protect against offline dictionary attacks, but it remains a personal mode reliant on a common passphrase.
3
Compare WPA3 modes against compliance mandates
Only WPA3-Enterprise supports 802.1X authentication framework integration with RADIUS servers for per-user credential validation.
WPA3-Personal cannot pass individual user identities or credentials to 802.1X/RADIUS servers.

Key Concept

WPA3-Personal vs. WPA3-Enterprise Authentication Mechanics
Question 328Question

A network administrator needs to grant third-party auditors access to an internal web-based financial dashboard. The security policy dictates that remote users must not be required to install dedicated client software or agent applications on their unmanaged personal endpoints, yet all session traffic must remain encrypted over the internet. Which remote access technology best meets these requirements?

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Answer: Clientless SSL/TLS VPN

Answer

Clientless SSL/TLS VPN is the correct selection because it allows users to establish an encrypted session through a standard web browser using HTTPS (TCP 443) without installing remote access software.
Clientless SSL/TLS VPNs operate through standard web browsers over HTTPS (TCP port 443). Because modern web browsers natively support TLS encryption, third-party users can securely access web-based applications without downloading or installing any dedicated VPN client software on unmanaged endpoints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the operational constraints presented in the scenario.
Identified two primary requirements: zero endpoint client software installation (unmanaged devices) and encrypted access restricted to a web-based application.
Remote access solutions differ by encapsulation layer and client requirements.
2
Evaluate protocol architectures against the endpoint software restriction.
Clientless SSL/TLS VPN leverages existing web browser capabilities (Application layer security), eliminating the need for administrative rights or client software installation on the endpoint.
IPsec, L2TP, and PPTP all operate at lower OSI layers (Network/Data Link) and mandate host client configurations or helper software.

Key Concept

Clientless SSL/TLS VPN Architecture
Question 329Question

A network security administrator must configure an IPv4 Access Control List (ACL) on a router to enforce access policies for the internal host network (10.1.1.0/2410.1.1.0/24) communicating with a database server (172.16.10.5172.16.10.5). The policy requires that host 10.1.1.1510.1.1.15 is allowed HTTP access to the server, while all other hosts in 10.1.1.0/2410.1.1.0/24 are denied HTTP access. However, all hosts in 10.1.1.0/2410.1.1.0/24 must be allowed all other IP traffic to the server, and all remaining traffic from any other network must be dropped. Place the ACL statements in the correct top-to-bottom execution order to enforce this security policy without rule shadowing.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequential order of ACL statements from top to bottom is: 1) permit tcp host 10.1.1.15 host 172.16.10.5 eq 80, 2) deny tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.16.10.5 eq 80, 3) permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.16.10.5, and 4) deny ip any any.
Router Access Control Lists (ACLs) process incoming packets strictly top-to-bottom against each line item until a match is found. Once a match occurs, the action (permit or deny) is taken immediately and no further rules are evaluated. Therefore, more specific rules (such as host-specific permits or protocol-specific denies) must precede general rules (such as full subnet permits or catch-all denies). Placing host 10.1.1.15's HTTP permit first ensures it is processed before the 10.1.1.0/24 HTTP deny rule. Placing the 10.1.1.0/24 HTTP deny rule second ensures HTTP traffic from remaining subnet hosts is blocked before matching the third rule, which permits all other IP traffic from 10.1.1.0/24. Finally, the catch-all deny statement must be at the very bottom.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most specific exception rule.
The rule permitting HTTP access specifically for host 10.1.1.15 must be evaluated first.
Sequential ACL evaluation stops at the first matching statement. Placing host-specific permits first prevents broader subnet deny statements from accidentally blocking the host (rule shadowing).
2
Identify specific protocol restrictions for the broader network.
The rule denying HTTP traffic from subnet 10.1.1.0/24 to host 172.16.10.5 must be placed second.
This blocks HTTP for all other hosts in 10.1.1.0/24 after host 10.1.1.15 has already matched the first rule and been permitted.
3
Identify broad network permission rules.
The rule permitting general IP traffic from subnet 10.1.1.0/24 to host 172.16.10.5 is placed third.
Placing this rule after the specific HTTP deny rule ensures HTTP traffic is denied while allowing all other IP protocols (such as ICMP or SSH) from the subnet.
4
Place default clean-up or implicit deny rules at the bottom.
The explicit deny ip any any statement is placed last.
Catch-all deny statements must always be positioned at the end of the ACL to catch any traffic not explicitly permitted by previous rules.

Key Concept

ACL Sequential Processing & Rule Shadowing Avoidance
Question 330Question

An enterprise organization is mitigating two distinct security concerns regarding its web services: unauthorized tampering of REST API transactional data in transit, and frequent web server unresponsiveness caused by TCP SYN flood attacks. Which TWO of the following security mechanisms directly address the Integrity and Availability pillars of the CIA triad to mitigate these specific issues? (Select TWO)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Implementation of HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) validation for API payload transmissions; Deployment of perimeter SYN proxy appliances with automated TCP rate-limiting capabilities

Answer

The correct mechanisms are implementing HMAC validation for API payloads (protecting Integrity against tampering in transit) and deploying SYN proxy appliances with rate-limiting (protecting Availability against SYN flood attacks).
HMAC verification protects payload Integrity by ensuring API transaction data is not modified during transit. Deploying a SYN proxy protects service Availability by absorbing spoofed TCP connection floods, keeping backend services operational.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the security concern regarding API data tampering in transit.
Unauthorized modification of data during transmission is an Integrity violation.
HMAC uses a cryptographic hashing technique combined with a secret key to ensure data has not been altered between sender and receiver.
2
Analyze the security concern regarding TCP SYN flood attacks.
SYN floods attempt to exhaust server resources to make services unreachable, violating Availability.
Perimeter SYN proxies manage TCP handshakes on behalf of protected servers, preventing half-open connection state table exhaustion.
3
Evaluate distractors against the required security pillars.
Volume encryption ensures Confidentiality at rest, while RADIUS provides AAA administrative access control.
Neither storage encryption nor administrative AAA resolves transit payload tampering or active network denial-of-service incidents.

Key Concept

CIA Triad Principles (Integrity and Availability Controls)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 331Question

A security engineer is updating an organization's wireless baseline documentation to prepare for a migration from legacy Wi-Fi security protocols to WPA3-Enterprise across all corporate facilities. Which of the following technical features and requirements specifically apply when implementing WPA3-Enterprise? (Select TWO)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mandatory implementation of Protected Management Frames (PMF) to safeguard unicast and multicast management actions against eavesdropping and spoofing; Availability of an optional 192-bit cryptographic security suite utilizing 256-bit Galois/Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP-256) for high-security environments

Answer

The transition to WPA3-Enterprise mandates Protected Management Frames (PMF) and introduces support for an optional 192-bit security mode using GCMP-256.
WPA3 requires Protected Management Frames (PMF) across all variants to defend against disassociation/deauthentication spoofing, and WPA3-Enterprise includes an optional 192-bit mode using GCMP-256 for enhanced data confidentiality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze WPA3 baseline mandates.
PMF (IEEE 802.11w) is mandatory in WPA3 (both Personal and Enterprise modes), ensuring management frame integrity and protection against deauthentication spoofing.
WPA3 enforces PMF to mitigate wireless management frame attacks.
2
Evaluate WPA3-Enterprise specific cryptographic options.
WPA3-Enterprise supports an enhanced 192-bit security suite using GCMP-256 encryption for mission-critical environment baselines.
GCMP-256 and HMAC-SHA384 provide higher cryptographic assurance required for enterprise environments.
3
Distinguish authentication protocols between Personal and Enterprise modes.
SAE and PSK belong to personal/pre-shared key modes, whereas Enterprise mode utilizes 802.1X framework with EAP authentication types.
Confusing SAE (Personal) with 802.1X RADIUS (Enterprise) misidentifies the underlying authentication architecture.

Key Concept

WPA3-Enterprise Security Standards and Cryptographic Suites
Question 332Question

Match each Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol or header component to its corresponding operational characteristics and transport specifications.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

WireGuard
SSTP (Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol)
IPsec AH (Authentication Header)
L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Matches

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Answer

WireGuard pairs with high-performance kernel-space UDP port 51820 execution; SSTP pairs with SSL/TLS encapsulation over TCP port 443; IPsec AH pairs with OSI Layer 3 IP protocol 51 authentication without encryption; L2TP pairs with OSI Layer 2 tunneling over UDP port 1701 requiring secondary encryption.
Each VPN technology fulfills a specific niche: WireGuard provides fast kernel-level VPN connectivity on UDP port 51820; SSTP leverages TLS over TCP port 443 to circumvent restrictive firewalls; IPsec AH secures packet headers at Layer 3 using IP protocol 51 without encrypting data; and L2TP establishes Layer 2 tunnels on UDP port 1701 that rely on external protocols like IPsec for payload encryption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze WireGuard characteristics
WireGuard is recognized by its lightweight design, Linux kernel integration, modern ChaCha20-Poly1305 cipher suite, and default listening port on UDP 51820.
Differentiates modern state-of-the-art tunnel protocols from legacy PPP-based options.
2
Analyze SSTP transport features
SSTP uses TCP port 443 to tunnel PPP sessions inside TLS encryption.
Allows traffic to masquerade as standard HTTPS traffic to bypass firewall restrictions.
3
Differentiate IPsec Authentication Header (AH) from Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
AH uses IP protocol 51 for integrity and anti-replay protection without encrypting payload data, causing NAT verification failures due to header modification.
Identifies protocol-level security boundaries and NAT incompatibility issues.
4
Identify L2TP operational layer and security requirements
L2TP functions at Layer 2 to encapsulate PPP frames across IP networks over UDP port 1701, but requires IPsec for payload confidentiality.
Distinguishes pure tunneling mechanisms from integrated cryptographic VPN frameworks.

Key Concept

Distinguishing Virtual Private Network (VPN) and remote access protocols based on OSI layer operation, port numbers, encapsulation methods, and cryptographic capabilities.
Question 333Question

A network administrator applies the following IPv4 extended Access Control List (ACL) inbound on interface GigabitEthernet0/0 to control outbound internet access for internal clients on the 172.16.40.0/24172.16.40.0/24 network:

text
access-list 102 permit udp 172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 53
access-list 102 permit tcp 172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255 eq 443 any

Users report that domain name resolution functions properly, but secure web browsing to external websites fails. Which of the following configuration errors in the ACL is causing the HTTPS traffic to be dropped?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The ACL rule specifies port 443 as the source port criterion rather than the destination port criterion.

Answer

The ACL rule specifies port 443 as the source port criterion rather than the destination port criterion.
The correct option correctly identifies that the `eq 443` keyword was placed after the source network specification (`172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255`) rather than after the destination specification (`any`). Client computers initiate connections using dynamic high-numbered ephemeral source ports and target destination port 443 on web servers. Because the ACL checks for source port 443, outgoing client HTTPS requests fail to match the rule and fall through to the implicit deny.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the extended ACL syntax structure.
The syntax format for Cisco extended IPv4 ACLs is `access-list <number> permit/deny <protocol> <source-ip> <source-wildcard> [operator port] <dest-ip> <dest-wildcard> [operator port]`.
Understanding position-dependent arguments in extended ACL rules is critical for identifying parameter mismatches.
2
Evaluate the second rule: `access-list 102 permit tcp 172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255 eq 443 any`.
The `eq 443` modifier is placed immediately after the source wildcard mask `0.0.0.255` and before the destination keyword `any`.
This configuration attempts to match packets where the client's source port is 443.
3
Compare rule parameter placement with actual client traffic characteristics.
Client web browsers originate traffic using dynamically allocated ephemeral source ports (e.g., 49152–65535) destined to server port 443. Because the client's source port is not 443, the packet fails to match this permit rule and is dropped by the implicit deny at the end of the ACL.
To permit client connections to external web servers, `eq 443` must follow the destination specifier `any` (i.e., `permit tcp 172.16.40.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 443`).

Key Concept

Firewalls and Access Control Lists (ACLs)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 334Question

A network security administrator is troubleshooting a remote access IPsec VPN deployment across a router performing Network Address Translation (NAT). During testing, site-to-client connections configured to use IPsec Authentication Header (AH) fail to establish, whereas connections configured to use Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) succeed. Which of the following best explains why IPsec AH fails when passing through a NAT device?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: AH includes the outer IP header fields when calculating its integrity checksum, causing header modifications made by NAT to invalidate the packet authentication.

Answer

IPsec Authentication Header (AH) calculates its integrity checksum over the outer IP header fields, so Network Address Translation (NAT) modifications cause authentication verification failure at the receiving endpoint.
IPsec Authentication Header (AH) provides connectionless integrity and authentication by calculating an Integrity Check Value (ICV) over the entire IP packet, including mutable fields such as the source and destination IP addresses in the outer header. When Network Address Translation (NAT) modifies the IP header, the ICV check fails at the receiver. In contrast, Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) does not include the outer IP header in its ICV calculation, enabling compatibility with NAT Traversal (NAT-T).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze how IPsec Authentication Header (AH) operates
AH provides data integrity and origin authentication by computing an Integrity Check Value (ICV) across the entire packet, including IP header fields.
Understanding ICV coverage scope is essential to evaluating packet modifications.
2
Examine the impact of Network Address Translation (NAT)
NAT alters source or destination IP addresses in the outer IP header.
Modifying IP header values changes the checksum input fields.
3
Correlate packet alteration with ICV verification failure
The receiver recalculates the ICV upon packet arrival; because NAT altered the IP address, the calculated ICV does not match the transmitted ICV, causing packet rejection.
This explains why AH fails through NAT while ESP (which excludes outer IP header fields from ICV calculation or uses UDP encapsulation for NAT-T) succeeds.

Key Concept

IPsec Authentication Header (AH) vs Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) NAT Traversal Compatibility
Question 335Question

A network security administrator reviews authentication logs for a corporate Remote Access VPN gateway and notices a pattern of authentication failures across over 500 distinct employee accounts within a short timeframe. Further inspection shows that each individual account experienced only two failed login attempts per hour, avoiding account lockout thresholds. Which of the following attack types is most likely occurring?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Password spraying attack

Answer

Password spraying attack
Password spraying is a technique where an attacker attempts a few common passwords (e.g., 'Summer2026!') against a vast list of usernames. By keeping the number of failed attempts low per account within a given time period, the attacker successfully circumvents automated account lockout mechanisms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the log signature provided in the scenario.
Identified multiple user accounts (500+) receiving a low frequency of failed attempts (2 per hour), deliberately designed to stay beneath account lockout policies.
Security controls typically lock an account after 3 to 5 failed attempts within a set window; attackers adapt by testing a few common passwords across many accounts.
2
Compare the signature against common attack vectors.
Password spraying specifically fits the pattern of horizontal testing (few passwords across many accounts), whereas traditional brute-force is vertical testing (many passwords against one account).
Distinguishing between horizontal and vertical credential attacks is critical for deploying appropriate mitigations such as multi-factor authentication (MFA).

Key Concept

Password Spraying Attack
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 336Question

A network administrator is provisioning a wireless network for a medical clinic. To fulfill regulatory compliance mandates, the deployment requires centralized user authentication integrated with an 802.1X RADIUS server and 192-bit cryptographic strength for payload confidentiality. Which wireless security deployment mode and encryption suite best satisfies these requirements?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: WPA3-Enterprise using GCMP-256 encryption

Answer

WPA3-Enterprise using GCMP-256 encryption
WPA3-Enterprise mode provides 802.1X authentication via RADIUS servers for individual user accountability and supports the optional 192-bit security mode leveraging GCMP-256 encryption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify authentication requirements
Requirements mandate 802.1X RADIUS individual authentication, ruling out Personal (PSK/SAE) modes.
Enterprise modes use EAP and 802.1X RADIUS servers for identity management.
2
Evaluate cryptographic strength requirements
Requirements specify 192-bit cryptographic security mode.
WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode utilizes GCMP-256 (Galois/Counter Mode Protocol) for robust payload encryption.

Key Concept

WPA3 Wireless Security Standards and 802.1X Enterprise Authentication
Question 337Question

A network administrator needs to construct an inbound IPv4 extended Access Control List (ACL) on a gateway router to secure an internal server subnet (10.20.30.0/2410.20.30.0/24). The security policy requires allowing administrative SSH access from host 192.168.1.50192.168.1.50, allowing web HTTPS traffic from the internal workstation subnet (192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24), blocking all other traffic originating from subnet 192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24, and permitting traffic from all other internal subnets. Place the following ACL statement descriptions in the correct sequence from top to bottom (first matching rule to last).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct order from top to bottom is: 1) Permit TCP from host 192.168.1.50 to host 10.20.30.5 port 22; 2) Permit TCP from subnet 192.168.1.0/24 to subnet 10.20.30.0/24 port 443; 3) Deny IP from subnet 192.168.1.0/24 to subnet 10.20.30.0/24; 4) Permit IP from any to any.
ACL entries operate on a top-down, first-match logic. The correct sequence starts with the most specific match criteria (individual host SSH access), followed by broader protocol permissions for the subnet (HTTPS), then the broad subnet deny statement, and finally a permit statement for all remaining subnet traffic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most specific rule
Host-specific rule permitting SSH (TCP port 22) from 192.168.1.50192.168.1.50 to 10.20.30.510.20.30.5
ACLs process rules sequentially from top to bottom. Specific single-host rules must precede broader subnet rules to prevent rule shadowing.
2
Place specific protocol/port permissions for the source subnet
Subnet rule permitting HTTPS (TCP port 443) from 192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24 to 10.20.30.0/2410.20.30.0/24
HTTPS permission must occur before blocking the rest of subnet 192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24 traffic.
3
Apply broad denial for the specific source subnet
Rule denying all IP traffic from subnet 192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24 to 10.20.30.0/2410.20.30.0/24
This drops any non-HTTPS traffic from subnet 192.168.1.0/24192.168.1.0/24 while preserving access permitted in earlier steps.
4
Permit remaining subnets
Rule permitting IP traffic from any source to any destination
This allows traffic from other network subnets to reach the server network, overriding the implicit deny any rule at the end of the ACL.

Key Concept

ACL Sequential Evaluation and Shadowing Prevention
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 338Question

An organization is implementing a client-based Remote Access VPN using L2TP/IPsec to provide secure connectivity for remote workers through perimeter firewalls and Network Address Translation (NAT) gateways. Which of the following protocol requirements and firewall rules are necessary to establish and maintain this VPN connection? (Select TWO.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: UDP port 500 must be allowed inbound and outbound for Internet Key Exchange (IKE) Security Association (SA) negotiations.; UDP port 4500 must be permitted to support IPsec NAT-Traversal (NAT-T) when clients reside behind NAT devices.

Answer

UDP port 500 for IKE negotiations and UDP port 4500 for NAT-Traversal are both required for L2TP/IPsec remote access VPN connections across NAT gateways.
For an L2TP/IPsec VPN connection to successfully navigate boundary firewalls and NAT devices, UDP port 500 must be opened for IKE authentication and key exchange, and UDP port 4500 must be permitted to allow NAT-Traversal (NAT-T) encapsulation of ESP data packets.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify key protocols for IPsec handshake and negotiation
Recognize that Internet Key Exchange (IKE) uses UDP port 500 to authenticate peers and set up Security Associations.
Without allowing UDP port 500 through the boundary firewall, initial key exchange cannot complete.
2
Analyze the impact of Network Address Translation (NAT) on IPsec traffic
Determine that NAT-Traversal (NAT-T) encapsulates ESP traffic inside UDP port 4500 headers when NAT is detected between endpoints.
Standard IPsec ESP (IP Protocol 50) packets lack port numbers and often fail or experience issues when traversing NAT unless wrapped in UDP 4500.
3
Evaluate distractor choices regarding transport protocols and encryption roles
Identify that L2TP uses UDP port 1701 (not TCP) and provides no native encryption, while AH (IP Protocol 51) provides no encryption and fails when modified by NAT.
L2TP relies on IPsec for confidentiality, and ESP with NAT-T (UDP 4500) must be used instead of AH for NAT compatibility.

Key Concept

L2TP/IPsec Protocol Requirements and Firewall NAT Traversal
Question 339Question

A network administrator is configuring an extended IPv4 Access Control List (ACL) on a core router to permit administrator workstations on subnet 172.20.10.0/24172.20.10.0/24 to manage remote servers on subnet 10.30.50.0/2410.30.50.0/24 using Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). The administrator configures the following ACL entry inbound on the router interface connected to the administrator subnet:

`access-list 110 permit tcp 172.20.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq 3389 10.30.50.0 0.0.0.255`
`access-list 110 deny ip any any`

After applying the ACL, administrators report that RDP connection attempts to the servers time out. Which of the following identifies the configuration error in the ACL entry?

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Answer: The rule places the port filter parameter (`eq 3389`) after the source subnet instead of after the destination subnet.

Answer

The configuration error is that the port filter parameter (`eq 3389`) is positioned immediately after the source IP address structure instead of after the destination IP address structure in the extended ACL statement.
The correct answer correctly identifies that `eq 3389` was placed after the source network parameters rather than the destination network parameters. In extended ACLs, client-initiated traffic uses dynamic source ports, so service port filters like RDP (TCP 3389) must be appended after the destination IP address.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze extended IPv4 ACL syntax structure
Standard extended ACL syntax follows: `access-list [number] permit/deny [protocol] [source IP] [source wildcard] [operator port] [destination IP] [destination wildcard] [operator port]`.
Correct positioning of protocol and port parameters is required for the router to match the proper fields in packet headers.
2
Evaluate source versus destination port roles for RDP traffic
Client workstations initiate RDP sessions using an OS-assigned ephemeral source port (e.g., 49152–65535) targeted at destination TCP port 3389 on the server.
Placing `eq 3389` immediately after the source address `172.20.10.0 0.0.0.255` causes the router to look for packets with a source port of 3389, which fails to match outbound client connection requests.
3
Determine the required ACL modification
Move the port specification to match destination port 3389: `access-list 110 permit tcp 172.20.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.30.50.0 0.0.0.255 eq 3389`.
This correctly permits TCP traffic originating from the administrator subnet targeted at port 3389 on the server subnet.

Key Concept

Extended Access Control List (ACL) Syntax and Port Placement
Question 340Question

A network audit requires verifying that wireless security standards across company facilities are aligned with their correct cryptographic algorithms and integrity controls. Match each wireless security protocol on the left with its corresponding encryption cipher and integrity mechanism on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

WEP
WPA2-Personal
WPA3-Personal
WPA3-Enterprise (192-bit mode)

Matches

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Answer

WEP pairs with RC4 stream cipher with CRC-32 integrity check; WPA2-Personal pairs with AES-CCMP encryption with CBC-MAC integrity check; WPA3-Personal pairs with AES-CCMP-128 encryption with SAE key establishment; WPA3-Enterprise (192-bit mode) pairs with AES-GCMP-256 encryption with BIP-GMAC-256 integrity check.
Each wireless security standard enforces distinct cipher suites and key management protocols: WEP pairs with RC4 and CRC-32; WPA2-Personal uses AES-CCMP with CBC-MAC; WPA3-Personal incorporates SAE alongside AES-CCMP-128; and WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode requires higher-strength AES-GCMP-256 and BIP-GMAC-256.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the cryptographic mechanism defined for legacy WEP.
WEP uses RC4 for encryption and CRC-32 for integrity.
WEP is an early 802.11 security mechanism notorious for initialization vector reuse and weak CRC-32 integrity checking.
2
Identify the encryption suite mandated by WPA2-Personal.
WPA2-Personal uses AES-CCMP, combining AES encryption with CBC-MAC for data integrity.
The IEEE 802.11i standard introduced CCMP to address the security flaws present in TKIP and WEP.
3
Identify the key exchange and cipher baseline for WPA3-Personal.
WPA3-Personal standardizes on AES-CCMP-128 for payload encryption and utilizes SAE for key exchange.
SAE provides forward secrecy and protects against offline dictionary attacks during pre-shared key handshakes.
4
Identify the enhanced 192-bit cryptographic suit mandated by WPA3-Enterprise high-security mode.
WPA3-Enterprise 192-bit mode requires AES-GCMP-256 payload encryption with BIP-GMAC-256 for management frame protection.
GCMP-256 provides authenticated encryption suitable for high-security commercial and government enterprise deployments.

Key Concept

Wireless Security Standards and Encryption Protocols
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