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Question 361Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client with a bowel obstruction. To reduce the risk of respiratory trauma and aspiration, arrange the following procedural steps in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence for safe nasogastric tube insertion is to first measure the required tube length, then hyperextend the client's neck for initial nasal insertion, flex the chin to the chest once the tube reaches the throat, advance the tube while the client swallows, and finally verify placement by aspirating and testing the pH.
The correct sequence ensures client safety by aligning the airway anatomy appropriately at each stage of the procedure. Measurement must occur first to identify the target depth. The head is tilted back initially only to facilitate nasal entry. Crucially, the head must be tilted forward (chin-to-chest) when the tube reaches the back of the throat to close the trachea. Swallowing assists esophageal passage, and verifying placement via pH is the final bedside safety check before utilizing the tube.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the proper insertion depth.
The PN measures from the nose to the earlobe down to the xiphoid process.
This establishes a reliable landmark to ensure the tube reaches the stomach without coiling in the esophagus.
2
Navigate the nasal cavity.
The client hyperextends their neck while the PN advances the tube.
Tilting the head back straightens the nasal passage, minimizing mucosal trauma during initial entry.
3
Protect the airway at the oropharynx.
The client flexes their chin toward their chest.
This anatomical shift forces the epiglottis to cover the glottis, which is vital for preventing the tube from entering the trachea.
4
Pass the tube down the esophagus.
The client swallows water as the PN advances the tube.
Swallowing initiates peristalsis and keeps the airway closed, facilitating a smooth and safe passage into the stomach.
5
Verify initial placement.
The PN aspirates contents and checks the pH.
Testing the pH of the aspirate confirms acidic gastric placement, immediately reducing the risk of inadvertently administering fluids into the lungs.

Key Concept

Correct anatomical positioning—specifically transitioning from neck hyperextension to chin-to-chest flexion—during nasogastric tube insertion is a critical maneuver to close the airway and prevent accidental tracheal intubation.
Question 362Question →

A practical nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has left-sided weakness from the bed to a wheelchair. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: position the wheelchair on the strong side, lock the brakes, assist the client to a sitting position, apply the transfer belt, and finally assist the client to stand and pivot.
The correct sequence prioritizes environmental preparation, equipment safety, client physiological readiness, the application of safety devices, and finally, the execution of the transfer using proper body mechanics.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair on the client's strong side (right side) at a 45-degree angle.
The wheelchair is optimally aligned for the safest possible transfer.
Transferring toward the strong side allows the client to bear weight and use their unaffected limbs for support during the pivot.
2
Lock the brakes on the bed and wheelchair.
Both surfaces are completely immobilized.
This prevents the equipment from sliding away during the weight shift, significantly reducing the risk of a fall.
3
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed with their feet flat on the floor.
The client is upright and stabilized with a solid base of support.
Dangling allows the body to adjust to the position change, preventing dizziness from orthostatic hypotension before standing.
4
Apply a transfer belt snugly around the client's waist.
The nurse has a secure, mechanical grip point.
A gait belt decreases the risk of dropping the client and prevents injury to the nurse's back or the client's limbs by avoiding lifting under the arms.
5
Brace the weak leg, assist the client to stand, and pivot.
The client is safely moved from the bed into the wheelchair.
Bracing the hemiparetic left leg prevents the knee from collapsing under the client's body weight, ensuring a controlled descent into the chair.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer and Mobility Principles
Question 363Question →

During morning rounds on a medical-surgical unit, a practical nurse (PN) assesses a client who underwent an open bowel resection two days ago. The client appears restless and mildly confused. Assessment findings include a heart rate of 115 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/56 mm Hg. A review of the morning electronic health record reveals a newly resulted serum lactate level of 4.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.5-1.0 mmol/L). The client's baseline blood pressure from the previous shift was 130/72 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the PN take first?

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Answer: Immediately escalate the client's vital signs and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.

Answer

Immediately escalate the client's vital signs and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.
The client is demonstrating early signs of shock and physiological deterioration, including tachycardia, relative hypotension, tachypnea, restlessness, and a critically elevated serum lactate. The priority for the practical nurse is to recognize these combined indicators of risk and immediately escalate the findings to the supervising registered nurse so that timely life-saving interventions can be initiated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current vital signs compared to the baseline.
The heart rate is elevated (115 beats/minute), the respiratory rate is elevated (24 breaths/minute), and the blood pressure has significantly decreased from baseline (94/56 mm Hg compared to 130/72 mm Hg).
Identifying trends in vital signs is essential for recognizing physiological deterioration.
2
Evaluate the morning laboratory results alongside the physical assessment.
The serum lactate level is 4.8 mmol/L, which is significantly higher than the normal range (0.5-1.0 mmol/L), indicating inadequate tissue oxygenation.
Elevated lactate combined with restlessness and abnormal vital signs strongly suggests the onset of sepsis or shock.
3
Determine the priority nursing action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The PN must immediately report these critical findings to the supervising registered nurse.
The client requires immediate higher-level assessment and collaborative medical intervention that falls outside the independent scope of the PN.

Key Concept

Early Recognition and Escalation of Shock/Sepsis
Question 364Question →

A client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis is prescribed a daily dose of subcutaneous enoxaparin. Prior to administering the medication, the practical nurse (PN) reviews the client's morning laboratory results and notes a platelet count of 80,000 cells/mm380,000\text{ cells/mm}^3 (normal: 150,000−400,000 cells/mm3150,000 - 400,000\text{ cells/mm}^3). Which action should the PN take?

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Answer: Withhold the medication and immediately report the platelet count to the supervising registered nurse (RN).

Answer

The correct action is to withhold the scheduled enoxaparin and immediately report the abnormal laboratory findings to the supervising registered nurse.
Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used to prevent or treat clot formation. A platelet count of 80,000 cells/mm380,000\text{ cells/mm}^3 indicates thrombocytopenia, which places the client at a high risk for spontaneous and potentially severe bleeding. Administering an anticoagulant under these conditions is clinically unsafe. The practical nurse's priority, acting within their defined scope of practice, is to withhold the medication and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) or healthcare provider so the therapy can be safely re-evaluated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's laboratory results in the context of the prescribed medication.
The platelet count of 80,000 cells/mm³ is significantly below the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia.
Safe medication administration requires correlating current laboratory values with the intended pharmacological therapy.
2
Determine the safety and contraindications of administering the drug.
Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant; administering it to a client with pre-existing low platelets severely increases the risk of life-threatening hemorrhage.
Anticoagulants prevent clot formation, and platelets are essential for blood clotting. A deficiency in platelets contraindicates anticoagulant use.
3
Identify the appropriate nursing action within the PN scope of practice.
The PN must withhold the dose and escalate the critical finding to the RN or primary healthcare provider.
The PN is responsible for recognizing critical abnormalities and communicating them to the supervising RN for further clinical decision-making.

Key Concept

Pharmacological safety and PN scope of practice regarding critical laboratory values
Question 365Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a combined dose of regular insulin and NPH insulin in a single syringe to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Arrange the following steps for preparing this medication in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to roll the NPH vial, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
The correct sequence for mixing insulins ensures precise dosing and prevents contamination of the vials. The PN must first gently roll the NPH (cloudy) insulin to resuspend the particles. To prevent negative pressure, air is injected into the NPH vial first, followed by injecting air into the regular (clear) insulin vial. The regular insulin is drawn up immediately after injecting air into its vial (clear before cloudy). Finally, the NPH insulin is drawn up. This sequence prevents the intermediate-acting NPH insulin from accidentally entering and altering the pharmacokinetics of the rapid/short-acting regular insulin vial.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Roll the NPH insulin vial gently between the palms.
The NPH insulin suspension is evenly mixed without creating air bubbles.
NPH insulin is a suspension that settles on standing and requires gentle mixing prior to use to ensure accurate dosing.
2
Inject air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
The NPH vial is pressurized.
Prevents negative pressure in the vial. Doing this first keeps the needle free of regular insulin, preventing contamination of the NPH vial.
3
Inject air equal to the prescribed dose into the regular insulin vial.
The regular insulin vial is pressurized and ready for withdrawal.
Prevents negative pressure. Because the needle is now in the regular insulin vial, withdrawal can begin immediately without removing the needle.
4
Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin into the syringe.
Clear insulin is drawn into the syringe.
Regular (clear) insulin is always drawn up first. This prevents contamination of the rapid-acting insulin vial with the longer-acting NPH insulin.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin into the syringe.
The mixed dose is completed accurately.
NPH (cloudy) insulin is drawn last because introducing regular insulin into the NPH vial does not negatively alter the intermediate-acting insulin's properties.

Key Concept

Safe preparation and mixing of regular (clear) and NPH (cloudy) insulins
Question 366Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to measure orthostatic vital signs for an older adult client who reports experiencing dizziness when getting out of bed. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence the PN should follow to safely and accurately assess for orthostatic hypotension.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first have the client lie supine for 5 to 10 minutes, measure the baseline vitals, assist the client to a standing position, wait 1 to 3 minutes, and finally re-measure the vitals in the standing position.
Measuring orthostatic vital signs accurately requires a strict protocol to detect orthostatic hypotension safely. The client must first rest supine to establish a true baseline. After taking these baseline measurements, the client is assisted to a standing position. Gravity causes blood to pool in the lower extremities, and the nurse must wait 1 to 3 minutes to see if the autonomic nervous system properly compensates. Finally, re-measuring the vitals will reveal if there is a significant, sustained drop in blood pressure or an abnormal increase in heart rate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure the client rests in a supine position for 5 to 10 minutes.
The cardiovascular system reaches a resting baseline state.
Accurate comparison requires a stable, resting baseline before initiating positional changes.
2
Measure and record the blood pressure and pulse rate.
Baseline vital signs are established.
These values serve as the control to determine if subsequent positional changes cause abnormal deviations.
3
Assist the client to a standing position.
Gravity causes a sudden fluid volume shift toward the lower extremities.
Standing triggers the baroreceptor reflex, which tests the autonomic nervous system's ability to compensate for the positional change.
4
Wait 1 to 3 minutes after the position change.
The body is given time to compensate for the fluid shift.
Taking vitals too quickly can yield false results, as the cardiovascular system needs a brief period to adjust to the gravitational pull.
5
Measure and record the standing blood pressure and pulse rate.
Standing vital signs are obtained.
Comparing these values to the baseline identifies orthostatic hypotension, which is typically defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more, or diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more.

Key Concept

Orthostatic Vital Signs Assessment Protocol
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 367Question →

An 8484-year-old client resides in a skilled nursing facility and is currently receiving oral antibiotics for a lower respiratory tract infection. During the night shift, the practical nurse (PN) finds the client repeatedly attempting to climb out of bed. The client is disoriented to place and time, which is an acute change from their baseline. The client's current vital signs are: Temperature 97.4∘F97.4^\circ\text{F} (36.3∘C36.3^\circ\text{C}), Heart Rate 116116 bpm, Respiratory Rate 2424 breaths/min, and Blood Pressure 96/5896/58 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take FIRST?

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Answer: Obtain an oxygen saturation reading, elevate the head of the bed, and immediately notify the registered nurse.

Answer

Obtain an oxygen saturation reading, elevate the head of the bed, and immediately notify the registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting acute delirium alongside tachypnea, tachycardia, and borderline hypotension. In an older adult with a known infection, this presentation strongly suggests physiological adaptation failure, specifically early sepsis or hypoxia. The priority is to address Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) by assessing oxygenation, repositioning to support respiratory effort, and immediately escalating to the registered nurse for further medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and recent medical history.
The client has a respiratory infection and is presenting with new-onset delirium, tachypnea, tachycardia, and borderline hypotension.
Identifying the cluster of symptoms helps distinguish between a chronic psychological issue and an acute physiological crisis.
2
Evaluate the vital signs against the client's baseline and age expectations.
A heart rate of 116116 bpm and blood pressure of 96/5896/58 mm Hg, combined with a lower body temperature, are not normal sleep parameters and suggest early shock or sepsis.
Recognizing subtle or borderline vital sign changes is critical for early intervention in geriatric populations.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
The priority is to assess respiratory function (oxygen saturation), support breathing (elevate head of bed), and escalate the critical findings to the RN.
Physiological survival needs always take precedence over comfort measures or routine monitoring when an acute deterioration is suspected.

Key Concept

Recognition and prioritization of early sepsis and hypoxia in the geriatric client.
Question 368Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is assigned to care for several adult clients on a medical-surgical unit and is preparing to administer scheduled morning medications. Which of the following actions by the PN demonstrate safe pharmacological practice and adherence to the PN scope of practice? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Holding a client's daily carvedilol dose and alerting the charge nurse after assessing an apical pulse of 52 beats per minute.; Asking a client to state their full name and date of birth while comparing it to the medication administration record before providing an oral analgesic.; Reviewing the signs of hypoglycemia with a diabetic client as a reinforcement of the initial teaching provided by the registered nurse.

Answer

The correct actions include holding the carvedilol for bradycardia, verifying two client identifiers before medication administration, and reinforcing medication education initially provided by the RN.
Safe pharmacological practice for a practical nurse requires adhering to the rights of medication administration (including using two identifiers), recognizing when clinical data (such as a low heart rate) necessitates withholding a dose, and staying within the legal scope of practice by reinforcing RN teaching rather than providing initial education or giving IV push medications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each action against medication administration safety protocols.
Barcode scanning and checking two identifiers are safety standards; skipping the scanner is unsafe practice.
The rights of medication administration must be upheld for every dose to prevent harm.
2
Analyze the clinical parameters provided for medication administration.
A pulse of 52 bpm is too low for a beta-blocker, and an INR of 6.2 is too high for warfarin.
Medications must be withheld and reported if vital signs or laboratory values indicate potential toxicity or adverse effects.
3
Assess each nursing action against the practical nurse (PN) scope of practice.
Reinforcing teaching is within the PN scope, but administering IV push medications is outside the PN scope.
Delegated tasks must comply with the state Nurse Practice Act and standard scope of practice guidelines.

Key Concept

Safe medication administration and the PN scope of practice
Question 369Question →

A family member visits a client who is receiving intravenous antibiotics for a severe urinary tract infection. The family member approaches the practical nurse and states, "My father is acting very strangely. He does not know who I am and keeps trying to climb over the bed rails." Upon entering the room, the nurse notes the client is highly agitated and actively tugging at the intravenous tubing. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

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Answer: Measure the client's pulse oximetry and current vital signs

Answer

Measure the client's pulse oximetry and current vital signs.
The correct action is to measure the client's pulse oximetry and current vital signs. Sudden onset of confusion and agitation in a client with an infection is a key indicator of physiological decompensation, such as hypoxia or early sepsis. The practical nurse must first collect physiological data to identify if there is an immediate, life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulation (ABC) issue before attempting any secondary behavioral interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's clinical presentation.
Identify that the client is experiencing acute-onset agitation and confusion.
Sudden changes in mental status are frequently caused by underlying physiological issues rather than primary psychiatric or behavioral problems.
2
Apply the prioritization framework to determine the next nursing action.
Select data collection regarding the client's respiratory and hemodynamic status.
Assessing airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) parameters takes precedence over psychological support or the application of restraints.

Key Concept

Prioritization of physiological assessment in acute delirium
Question 370Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of iron dextran to an adult client using the Z-track method. Arrange the following steps for this procedure in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence for a Z-track IM injection is: cleanse the site, displace the tissue laterally, insert the needle and inject, wait 10 seconds, and finally withdraw the needle while releasing the tissue.
The Z-track method is designed specifically to prevent highly irritating or staining medications (like iron dextran) from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Proper sequence is vital: site preparation must happen first. The skin is then displaced to shift the entry point. While maintaining displacement, the injection is given. Waiting 10 seconds allows the medication to disperse. Finally, withdrawing the needle and releasing the skin simultaneously 'locks' the track, sealing the medication deep inside the muscle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Cleanse the injection site and allow it to dry.
Pathogens are removed from the skin surface.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms deep into the muscle tissue upon needle insertion.
2
Displace the skin and subcutaneous tissue.
The superficial tissues are offset from the underlying muscle.
Creates a non-linear path (a 'Z' track) for the needle to follow, preparing the mechanical lock.
3
Insert the needle at 90 degrees and inject.
Medication is delivered directly into the deep muscle belly.
Ensures the medication reaches the highly vascular muscle tissue for proper absorption.
4
Wait 10 seconds before removing the needle.
Medication diffuses into the surrounding muscle fibers.
Prevents the fluid from being forced back up the needle track due to pressure in the tissue.
5
Withdraw the needle and release the tissue simultaneously.
The displaced tissue slides back over the injection site in the muscle.
Closes off the needle track, preventing irritating medications like iron dextran from leaking into the subcutaneous layer and causing severe staining or pain.

Key Concept

Safe Medication Administration: Z-Track Method
Question 371Question →

A client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit following a left-sided mastectomy with an axillary lymph node dissection. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assisting with basic care and comfort measures. Which actions are appropriate for the LPN to include in the client's care? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Elevate the client's left arm on pillows to facilitate lymphatic fluid drainage.; Assist the client into a semi-Fowler's position to minimize tension on the surgical site.; Encourage the client to perform gentle finger and wrist range-of-motion exercises on the left side.

Answer

The appropriate actions for the LPN to take include elevating the client's left arm on pillows, assisting the client into a semi-Fowler's position, and encouraging gentle finger and wrist range-of-motion exercises on the affected side.
The correct interventions prioritize client comfort and physiological safety following a mastectomy. Elevating the affected arm on pillows facilitates lymphatic and venous fluid drainage, thereby preventing lymphedema. Assisting the client into a semi-Fowler's position reduces stretching and tension on the chest wall incision, minimizing pain and promoting optimal lung expansion. Furthermore, supporting the client in performing early, gentle range-of-motion exercises of the distal joints (fingers and wrist) stimulates circulation and maintains muscle tone without putting stress on the surgical site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the client's surgical procedure and current care environment.
The client has undergone a left-sided mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection and requires basic comfort and safety measures.
Understanding the specific procedure identifies the risk for post-procedure complications such as lymphedema.
2
Evaluate each proposed positioning and comfort intervention for safety and efficacy.
Arm elevation and semi-Fowler's positioning are identified as safe methods to promote lymphatic drainage and reduce incisional tension, while dependent positioning is identified as harmful.
Correct positioning is a primary component of basic care and comfort that prevents physiological complications.
3
Analyze the pharmacological and scope-of-practice interventions presented in the options.
Administering IV push medication is recognized as being outside the standard legal scope of practice for a practical nurse.
LPNs must provide care strictly within their defined legal boundaries.
4
Select the options that represent correct, safe basic care measures within the LPN scope.
The correct interventions are elevating the arm, utilizing semi-Fowler's position, and encouraging distal range-of-motion exercises.
These actions synthesize knowledge of proper positioning, client comfort, and scope of practice.

Key Concept

Postoperative basic care following a mastectomy focuses on promoting lymphatic drainage (arm elevation), minimizing incisional tension (semi-Fowler's position), maintaining mobility (distal joint exercises), and adhering to the LPN scope of practice.
Question 372Question →

An older adult client is receiving care for severe acute pancreatitis. The practical nurse (PN) is closely monitoring the client for the development of third-spacing and early hypovolemic shock. Which data collection findings should the PN identify as early indicators of this acute physiological complication? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Blood pressure of 108/88 mm Hg, compared to an admission baseline of 136/74 mm Hg; Apical heart rate of 118 beats/min with thready radial pulses; Urine output of 40 mL recorded over the previous 2 hours; New onset of restlessness and continuous picking at bed linens

Answer

The early indicators of hypovolemic shock include the narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia with thready pulses, oliguria, and new onset of restlessness.
Early hypovolemic shock triggers sympathetic compensatory mechanisms. A narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia with thready pulses, a sudden drop in urine output (< 30 mL/hr), and acute neurological changes (restlessness) all indicate decreased cardiac output and compromised tissue perfusion requiring immediate RN intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the specific complication being assessed.
The client has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for fluid shifting (third-spacing) leading to hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the target complication focuses the evaluation on signs of systemic circulatory compromise versus expected localized disease symptoms.
2
Evaluate each finding for evidence of compromised perfusion or compensatory shock mechanisms.
Narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, decreased urine output, and altered mental status are identified as shock indicators.
These findings reflect the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output (sympathetic response) and the resulting decrease in organ perfusion.
3
Differentiate acute systemic decompensation from normal findings and localized symptoms.
The severe pain is localized to the pancreas, and a 2-second capillary refill is a normal finding.
Separating expected localized symptoms from systemic ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) changes is critical for accurate clinical prioritization.

Key Concept

Recognition of Early Hypovolemic Shock and Third-Spacing
Question 373Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is performing a morning assessment on an older adult client who is 48 hours post-operative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings indicate a potential complication and require immediate escalation to the registered nurse (RN)? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client, who was alert yesterday, repeatedly asks the nurse where they are.; Heart rate is 112 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 98/60 mm Hg.; Morning laboratory results indicate a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L).

Answer

The findings requiring immediate RN escalation are the sudden-onset confusion, the vital signs of 112 bpm and 98/60 mm Hg, and the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L.
Sudden-onset confusion in an older adult is an indicator of acute delirium, potentially caused by hypoxia or infection. A heart rate of 112 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 98/60 mm Hg represents borderline vital signs that are early indicators of hypovolemic shock or hemorrhage. A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and places the client at immediate risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. All three of these findings represent acute, potentially life-threatening complications that exceed the practical nurse's scope of independent management and require immediate escalation to the registered nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's cognitive change.
Sudden confusion indicates potential acute delirium, hypoxia, or infection.
New-onset disorientation is never a normal finding and requires urgent assessment to rule out life-threatening causes.
2
Evaluate the vital signs.
A heart rate of 112 bpm with a blood pressure of 98/60 mm Hg suggests early hypovolemia or shock.
Borderline tachycardia and hypotension in a post-operative client are early compensatory signs of hemorrhage that must be escalated.
3
Review the laboratory results.
A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low.
Hypokalemia can trigger fatal cardiac dysrhythmias and requires immediate medical intervention.
4
Evaluate the remaining clinical findings.
Mild pain with movement, small amounts of dry drainage, and incorrect heel positioning are expected or easily correctable findings.
These findings fall within the practical nurse's scope to manage independently (e.g., administering PRN analgesics, floating heels) and do not require urgent RN escalation.

Key Concept

Recognizing early clinical indicators of post-operative complications and differentiating them from expected findings or issues within the practical nurse's independent scope.
Question 374Question →

A healthcare provider prescribes ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg/day50\text{ mg/kg/day} intramuscularly (IM) to be given in two divided doses for a toddler who weighs 26.4 lbs26.4\text{ lbs}. The pharmacy supplies ceftriaxone as a powder in a vial labeled 1 g1\text{ g}. The reconstitution instructions on the vial state: "Add 2.1 mL2.1\text{ mL} of sterile water for injection to yield a final concentration of 350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL}."

How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the practical nurse administer for one dose? Record your answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in your answer.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 0.9

Answer

0.9
To determine the correct volume to administer, first convert the weight to kilograms (26.4 lbs÷2.2=12 kg26.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 12\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (12 kg×50 mg/kg=600 mg12\text{ kg} \times 50\text{ mg/kg} = 600\text{ mg}). Because the medication is given in two divided doses, divide the total daily dose by 2 (600 mg÷2=300 mg600\text{ mg} \div 2 = 300\text{ mg}). Finally, use the reconstituted concentration of 350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL} to find the volume: (300 mg÷350 mg/mL=0.857... mL300\text{ mg} \div 350\text{ mg/mL} = 0.857...\text{ mL}). Rounding to the nearest tenth yields 0.9 mL0.9\text{ mL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
26.4 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=12 kg26.4\text{ lbs} \div 2.2\text{ lbs/kg} = 12\text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total daily dosage in milligrams.
12 kg×50 mg/kg/day=600 mg/day12\text{ kg} \times 50\text{ mg/kg/day} = 600\text{ mg/day}
This establishes the total amount of medication the toddler needs over a 24-hour period.
3
Determine the required milligrams for a single dose.
600 mg/day÷2 doses=300 mg/dose600\text{ mg/day} \div 2\text{ doses} = 300\text{ mg/dose}
The prescription states the medication is to be given in two divided doses per day, and the question asks for the volume of one dose.
4
Calculate the volume of the medication to administer based on the reconstituted concentration.
300 mg÷350 mg/mL=0.85714... mL300\text{ mg} \div 350\text{ mg/mL} = 0.85714...\text{ mL}
The final concentration yield (350 mg/mL350\text{ mg/mL}), not the diluent volume, must be used to calculate the physical volume to draw up into the syringe.
5
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
0.9 mL0.9\text{ mL}
The question explicitly asks to record the answer to the nearest tenth.

Key Concept

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation and medication reconstitution
Question 375Question →

During hourly rounds, the practical nurse (PN) evaluates a 70-year-old client who is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The client is suddenly shifting constantly in bed, appears slightly diaphoretic, and states, "I just feel like something terrible is going to happen." Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 112 beats/min and a blood pressure of 106/68 mm Hg. The client's baseline vital signs from the previous shift were a heart rate of 78 beats/min and a blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg. Which action should the PN take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the registered nurse immediately to report the sudden behavioral and hemodynamic changes.

Answer

The priority action is to immediately notify the registered nurse to report the sudden behavioral and hemodynamic changes.
The client is exhibiting classic early signs of shock or internal hemorrhage (tachycardia, relative hypotension, diaphoresis, and a sense of impending doom). Given the continuous heparin infusion, the risk of bleeding is high. The PN must immediately escalate these life-threatening physiological changes to the registered nurse for rapid, collaborative intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current assessment data compared to the baseline.
The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (from 78 to 112 beats/min) and a significant drop in blood pressure (from 144/82 to 106/68 mm Hg) alongside new diaphoresis and restlessness.
Comparing current data to baseline is essential to identify physiological deterioration, rather than relying solely on absolute standard normal ranges.
2
Correlate the physical findings with the client's current treatments and risks.
The continuous heparin infusion places the client at a high risk for internal hemorrhage. The vital sign trends and the feeling of "impending doom" are classic indicators of early hypovolemic shock or further pulmonary compromise.
Connecting the pharmacological risk factors to the acute presentation helps determine the urgency of the situation.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The PN must recognize this acute physiological deterioration and immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse (RN) or provider.
Rapid escalation is necessary to initiate prompt RN-level assessment and potential medical interventions for a hemodynamically unstable client.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Shock and Physiological Adaptation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 376Question →

During morning rounds, a practical nurse (PN) evaluates an adult client being treated for severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with scheduled oral theophylline. The client complains of new-onset nausea and an inability to rest. Vital signs reveal a heart rate of 112 beats/min112\text{ beats/min}. The morning laboratory report shows a serum theophylline concentration of 24 mcg/mL24\text{ mcg/mL}. What is the most appropriate action for the PN to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Hold the next dose of theophylline and immediately notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings.

Answer

The PN must withhold the medication and report the findings to the registered nurse because the client is exhibiting signs of theophylline toxicity.
The normal therapeutic range for serum theophylline is typically 1010 to 20 mcg/mL20\text{ mcg/mL}. A level of 24 mcg/mL24\text{ mcg/mL}, combined with clinical symptoms such as nausea, restlessness, and tachycardia, strongly indicates theophylline toxicity. The most appropriate and safe action within the practical nurse's scope of practice is to withhold the medication to prevent further toxicity and immediately report these critical findings to the registered nurse for further medical orders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's assessment data and laboratory values.
The client has a heart rate of 112 beats/min112\text{ beats/min}, nausea, restlessness, and a theophylline level of 24 mcg/mL24\text{ mcg/mL}.
Gathering and interpreting clinical data is necessary before safely administering any pharmacological therapy.
2
Compare the theophylline level to the established therapeutic range.
The result of 24 mcg/mL24\text{ mcg/mL} is recognized as toxic.
The expected therapeutic range for serum theophylline is typically 1010 to 20 mcg/mL20\text{ mcg/mL}. Levels above 20 mcg/mL20\text{ mcg/mL} place the client at risk for dangerous arrhythmias and seizures.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention based on the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must withhold the toxic dose and escalate the critical findings to the supervising registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Ensuring client safety requires withholding harmful medications, and practical nurses must collaborate with RNs when a client's condition deteriorates or requires medical intervention.

Key Concept

Medication Safety: Identifying and Responding to Theophylline Toxicity
Question 377Question →

An older adult client is resting in bed following an uncomplicated right eye cataract extraction performed earlier in the day. The practical nurse is assisting the client with positioning for rest. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and encourage the client to rest on the left side.

Answer

Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and resting on the unoperated (left) side is the correct action to promote comfort and prevent increased intraocular pressure.
Following cataract extraction, it is critical to prevent an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP). Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees (Semi-Fowler's position) uses gravity to promote venous drainage from the head, effectively lowering IOP. Furthermore, placing the client on the unoperated side (the left side, in this case) ensures that no direct mechanical pressure is applied to the newly operated right eye, thus promoting both safety and basic comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and the operative side.
The client had a right eye cataract extraction.
Knowing the operative side is essential to prevent placing direct pressure on the vulnerable surgical site.
2
Determine the physiological goals of basic post-cataract care.
The primary goal is to prevent any increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) while maintaining client comfort and protecting the eye from trauma.
Increased IOP can cause rupture of the delicate suture lines or result in intraocular hemorrhage.
3
Select the position that best achieves these physiological goals.
Semi-Fowler's position (head elevated 30 to 45 degrees) on the back or the non-operative (left) side is chosen.
Gravity helps drain fluid away from the eye when the head is elevated, and lying on the non-operative side prevents direct physical pressure on the right eye.

Key Concept

Post-procedure comfort and safety positioning to prevent increased intraocular pressure.
Question 378Question →

A client is recovering on a surgical unit 4 hours after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy. A recent serum calcium level drawn 30 minutes ago was 7.8 mg/dL (normal: 9.0-10.5 mg/dL). The client reports a tightening sensation around the neck. The nurse observes the client swallowing repeatedly and notes that the pulse has increased to 110 bpm with a blood pressure of 104/66 mm Hg. The anterior surgical dressing is clean and dry. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Alert the supervising registered nurse right away to report findings suggestive of an expanding hematoma and airway compromise.

Answer

The priority action is to immediately alert the supervising registered nurse about the signs of an expanding hematoma and potential airway compromise.
The client's presentation of frequent swallowing, a tightening sensation in the neck, tachycardia, and a decrease in blood pressure are classic signs of an expanding hematoma following a thyroidectomy. Although the anterior dressing is dry, blood can pool posteriorly or internally, compressing the trachea. This is a life-threatening airway emergency requiring immediate escalation to the registered nurse or provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client exhibits frequent swallowing, a tightening throat, tachycardia (110 bpm), and decreasing blood pressure.
To identify the physiological mechanism causing the new symptoms.
2
Differentiate between possible postoperative complications.
Although the low calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) points to potential hypocalcemia, the combination of frequent swallowing, a tightening sensation, and early signs of shock strongly indicates an expanding hematoma.
To prioritize the most immediate life-threatening complication accurately.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice and priority action.
An expanding hematoma poses a severe risk of airway obstruction, requiring immediate escalation to the supervising registered nurse for emergency intervention.
Practical nurses must promptly recognize and report unstable, life-threatening conditions.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Recognizing and Escalating Airway Compromise

Alternative Method

Use the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework to evaluate all presenting symptoms. Any finding that threatens the airway, such as a tightening neck and frequent swallowing post-neck surgery, supersedes all other concerns including abnormal lab values.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 379Question →

A practical nurse is preparing a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis for transport to the radiology department for a prescribed computed tomography (CT) scan. Which of the following infection control actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place a standard surgical mask over the client's nose and mouth before they leave the isolation room.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to place a standard surgical mask over the client's nose and mouth before they leave the isolation room.
For clients on airborne precautions, such as those with active pulmonary tuberculosis, a standard surgical mask should be placed over their nose and mouth when they are transported outside of their negative-pressure room. This acts as essential source control by trapping large respiratory droplets and preventing the aerosolization of infectious droplet nuclei into the ambient environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for the client's diagnosis.
Active pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via the airborne route through infectious droplet nuclei.
Knowing the transmission route dictates the required infection control precautions.
2
Determine the correct protocol for transporting a client on airborne precautions.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask when outside the airborne infection isolation room (AIIR).
The surgical mask acts as source control, trapping the client's exhaled respiratory secretions before they can become aerosolized in the hospital environment.
3
Evaluate the distractors for common errors in PPE selection and doffing sequence.
Options involving N95 application on the client, doffing the nurse's N95 inside the room, or placing contact PPE on the client are identified as incorrect procedures.
N95s are for staff inhalation protection, doffing an N95 inside an AIIR exposes the nurse to suspended airborne particles, and gowns/gloves do not prevent airborne transmission.

Key Concept

Airborne Precautions and Client Transport Protocols
Question 380Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is assessing a client who is 4 hours post-procedure following a cardiac catheterization using a right femoral artery approach. The client's baseline vital signs were blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg and heart rate 74 beats/min. During the current assessment, the client reports a new onset of a mild, continuous ache in the lower back. The current vital signs are blood pressure 114/72 mm Hg and heart rate 98 beats/min. Which action should the PN take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) of the assessment findings.

Answer

Immediately notify the registered nurse (RN) of the assessment findings.
The correct action is to immediately notify the RN. The combination of a downward trend in blood pressure, an increasing heart rate, and new-onset lower back pain following a femoral cardiac catheterization is a classic presentation of a retroperitoneal hemorrhage. This is a medical emergency requiring rapid intervention, and the LPN must escalate these findings immediately to ensure client safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current vital signs compared to the baseline.
The blood pressure has decreased from 142/86 mm Hg to 114/72 mm Hg, and the heart rate has increased from 74 beats/min to 98 beats/min.
Identifying trends in vital signs helps detect early systemic complications such as fluid volume deficit or impending shock.
2
Evaluate the new symptom of lower back ache in the context of the recent procedure.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery. Lower back pain combined with a decreasing blood pressure and an increasing heart rate indicates a potential retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
Internal bleeding from the femoral puncture site can pool in the retroperitoneal space, causing back pain without any obvious external bleeding.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention within the LPN scope of practice.
The priority action is to immediately escalate these critical assessment findings to the RN or healthcare provider.
A suspected internal hemorrhage is a life-threatening complication that requires advanced assessment and rapid intervention beyond the LPN scope of practice.

Key Concept

Early Recognition and Escalation of Hemorrhagic Complications Post-Cardiac Catheterization
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