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Question 641Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to discontinue a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter for a client who is receiving continuous anticoagulant therapy. The IV infusion has already been stopped. Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence to safely remove the catheter and minimize the risk of complications. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to perform hand hygiene and don gloves, remove the dressing while stabilizing the hub, place gauze lightly over the site, withdraw the catheter parallel to the skin, and finally apply firm pressure for at least 5 minutes.
Safely discontinuing an IV catheter requires standard precautions, careful site exposure, atraumatic removal, and adequate hemostasis. For a client on anticoagulant therapy, the critical risk reduction modification is applying continuous pressure for a longer duration (at least 5 minutes) immediately after the catheter is fully withdrawn to prevent excessive bleeding or hematoma formation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Perform hand hygiene and don clean gloves.
Prevents the introduction of pathogens.
Standard infection control practices must be established prior to client contact.
2
Gently remove the securement dressing while stabilizing the catheter hub.
Exposes the insertion site without dislodging the catheter.
Stabilizing the hub prevents mechanical trauma to the vein and accidental premature removal.
3
Place a dry, sterile gauze pad lightly over the insertion site.
Prepares the site for immediate pressure upon removal.
Applying pressure before the catheter is fully removed can damage the vein lining.
4
Withdraw the catheter smoothly in a direction parallel to the skin.
Removes the foreign body safely.
Keeping the catheter parallel avoids puncturing the posterior wall of the vein.
5
Apply firm, continuous pressure to the site for at least 5 minutes.
Achieves hemostasis.
Clients on anticoagulants have prolonged bleeding times and require extended pressure to prevent hemorrhage or hematoma formation.

Key Concept

Discontinuation of a peripheral IV and bleeding risk reduction.
Question 642Question →

An older adult client in an inpatient rehabilitation facility is prescribed oral extended-release morphine for chronic pain management. When the practical nurse approaches the client to administer the morning dose, the client is difficult to awaken and has a respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Withhold the medication and urgently notify the supervising registered nurse.

Answer

The correct action is to withhold the medication and urgently notify the supervising registered nurse.
The correct answer requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the registered nurse. A respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect of morphine. Administering the medication would worsen the condition. The practical nurse must ensure client safety by holding the offending agent and escalating the unstable assessment findings to the supervising RN for urgent medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the older adult client's clinical presentation before proceeding with medication administration.
The client is difficult to arouse and exhibits a depressed respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute (normal adult rate is 12-20 breaths per minute).
Identifying significant deviations from baseline vital signs is necessary to ensure it is safe to administer pharmacological therapies.
2
Analyze the assessment findings in relation to the prescribed medication.
Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that carries a high risk for central nervous system and respiratory depression.
Connecting the client's symptoms to the known adverse effects of the prescribed drug dictates the immediate clinical response.
3
Determine the safest nursing intervention based on clinical prioritization and the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must withhold the opioid dose to prevent further respiratory compromise and immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse.
Airway and breathing are the highest priorities. An unstable client experiencing respiratory depression requires urgent RN-level assessment and potential medical interventions, such as administering an opioid antagonist.

Key Concept

Recognizing and managing opioid-induced respiratory depression within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Question 643Question →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer ibuprofen oral suspension to a toddler who weighs 28.628.6 lb. The health care provider prescribes 1010 mg/kg/dose every 66 hours PRN for fever. The pharmacy provides ibuprofen oral suspension with a concentration of 100100 mg / 55 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer for one dose? (Record answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in answer.)

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Answer: 6.5

Answer

6.5
To determine the correct volume to administer, the nurse must first convert the child's weight to kilograms (28.6 lb÷2.2=13 kg28.6 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 13 \text{ kg}). Next, calculate the required dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed weight-based amount (13 kg×10 mg/kg=130 mg13 \text{ kg} \times 10 \text{ mg/kg} = 130 \text{ mg}). Finally, calculate the volume using the medication concentration provided by the pharmacy (130 mg÷100 mg×5 mL=6.5 mL130 \text{ mg} \div 100 \text{ mg} \times 5 \text{ mL} = 6.5 \text{ mL}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms.
28.6÷2.2=1328.6 \div 2.2 = 13 kg
The prescribed dosage is ordered in mg/kg, requiring the client's weight to be in kilograms.
2
Determine the total milligrams required for one dose.
13×10=13013 \times 10 = 130 mg
Multiply the client's weight in kg by the prescribed dose of 1010 mg/kg.
3
Calculate the volume (mL) to administer.
130100×5=6.5\frac{130}{100} \times 5 = 6.5 mL
Use the formula (Desired / Have) x Quantity to find the required volume.

Key Concept

Weight-based pediatric dosage calculation
Question 644Question →

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client who is 66 hours post-operative following a right total knee arthroplasty. The nurse observes that the client is becoming increasingly restless and reports feeling dizzy. The current vital signs are: heart rate 114114 beats/min, respiratory rate 2424 breaths/min, and blood pressure 100/64100/64 mm Hg (pre-operative baseline 136/82136/82 mm Hg). The morning hematocrit level is 26%26\%, a significant decrease from the pre-operative level of 39%39\%. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the practical nurse to take?

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Answer: Immediately report the changes in vital signs and the decreased hematocrit level to the registered nurse.

Answer

The practical nurse should immediately escalate the findings to the registered nurse due to the clear indicators of hypovolemic shock.
The client is exhibiting restlessness, tachycardia, hypotension, and a significantly decreased hematocrit level, which are classic signs of internal bleeding and early hypovolemic shock following major orthopedic surgery. Recognizing these life-threatening complications and immediately escalating the findings to the registered nurse is the highest priority. This ensures the client will receive timely, advanced interventions such as aggressive fluid resuscitation or a blood transfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client shows restlessness, dizziness, tachycardia (114114 beats/min), and hypotension (100/64100/64 mm Hg from a baseline of 136/82136/82 mm Hg).
These are classic early indicators of poor tissue perfusion and compensatory mechanisms for blood loss.
2
Evaluate the laboratory results against expected post-operative ranges.
The hematocrit has dropped significantly from 39%39\% to 26%26\%.
While some blood loss is expected after major joint arthroplasty, a 13%13\% drop in hematocrit is critical and indicates severe hemorrhage.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The immediate priority is to notify the registered nurse and the healthcare provider.
The client is experiencing a life-threatening complication that requires advanced assessment, fluid resuscitation, or a potential blood transfusion, which necessitates registered nurse and provider collaboration.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Shock and Scope of Practice
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 645Question →

A practical nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is scheduled for an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan and has been prescribed NPO (nothing by mouth) status since midnight. The morning medication administration record includes prescriptions for oral glipizide and subcutaneous insulin lispro. The client's point-of-care blood glucose level is 6464 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take?

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Answer: Withhold both the glipizide and the insulin lispro, and immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider.

Answer

The practical nurse should withhold both the oral glipizide and the subcutaneous insulin lispro, and immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
The client is experiencing hypoglycemia (blood glucose less than 7070 mg/dL) and is NPO for a diagnostic procedure. Administering either glipizide (a sulfonylurea) or insulin lispro (a rapid-acting insulin) without food will exacerbate the hypoglycemia, potentially leading to seizures or coma. Furthermore, the practical nurse must escalate this critical laboratory finding to the registered nurse or provider, as the client's hypoglycemia requires treatment that may conflict with the NPO order (e.g., administering intravenous dextrose instead of oral juice).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's current physiological status.
The client is NPO, has a low blood glucose of 6464 mg/dL (hypoglycemia), and is awaiting a diagnostic procedure.
Establishing the baseline condition is necessary before safely administering any pharmacological therapy.
2
Analyze the prescribed medications' onset and mechanisms of action.
Glipizide stimulates insulin release, and insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin. Both require adequate food intake to prevent severe hypoglycemia.
Understanding pharmacokinetics ensures safe medication administration and prevents adverse drug events.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing action based on the practical nurse scope of practice.
The medications must be withheld to prevent life-threatening hypoglycemia, and the registered nurse or provider must be notified to determine the next steps for treating the hypoglycemia while managing the NPO status.
Practical nurses must escalate critical laboratory findings and recognize contraindications to delegated medications.

Key Concept

Pre-administration withholding criteria and medication safety for hypoglycemic, NPO clients
Question 646Question →

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assisting with the care of a client who is 4 hours4\text{ hours} post-operative following an open cholecystectomy and is currently receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. Which of the following actions by the LPN demonstrate appropriate risk reduction strategies? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Stopping the transfusion immediately if the client develops a sudden onset of lower back pain and dyspnea.; Verifying the client's identity, blood type, and the packed red blood cell unit with the registered nurse (RN) at the bedside before administration.; Obtaining and documenting the client's baseline vital signs immediately prior to the initiation of the transfusion.

Answer

The appropriate risk reduction strategies are stopping the transfusion for signs of a hemolytic reaction (back pain and dyspnea), verifying the client and blood product with an RN at the bedside, and obtaining baseline vital signs immediately prior to the transfusion.
Stopping the transfusion for signs of a hemolytic reaction, verifying the blood product with an RN, and obtaining baseline vital signs are essential risk reduction strategies. These actions ensure the right patient receives the right blood product, establish a baseline to identify adverse reactions, and prevent severe harm if an acute reaction occurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the role of the LPN in blood product administration.
The LPN can assist with monitoring and verifying but cannot independently initiate blood transfusions.
Blood administration requires RN-level assessment and initiation due to the high risk of life-threatening reactions.
2
Identify signs of acute transfusion reactions.
Lower back pain and dyspnea indicate an acute hemolytic reaction.
Cellular destruction during a hemolytic reaction causes kidney damage (back pain) and systemic shock, requiring immediate cessation of the infusion.
3
Evaluate the incorrect clinical actions.
Failing to report critical labs, ignoring borderline vital signs, and accepting out-of-scope delegations compromise client safety.
Risk reduction requires prompt escalation of abnormal findings and strict adherence to the LPN scope of practice.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential During Blood Administration
Question 647Question →

The nursing team is providing care for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is prescribed oral digoxin and a potassium-wasting diuretic. Which interventions are appropriate for the practical nurse (PN) to perform regarding this client's pharmacological management? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Auscultate the client's apical pulse for a full 6060 seconds prior to administering the digoxin.; Withhold the diuretic and notify the registered nurse immediately when the morning metabolic panel reveals a potassium level of 2.52.5 mEq/L.; Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while verifying the information against the medication administration record.

Answer

The appropriate actions are auscultating the apical pulse for 60 seconds, withholding the diuretic for a critically low potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L, and actively verifying the client's name and date of birth.
Safe pharmacological management for a client on digoxin and diuretics requires strict adherence to safety protocols. This includes verifying patient identity using two valid identifiers (name and date of birth), assessing the apical pulse for a full minute to detect bradycardia, and recognizing that critical laboratory values, such as severe hypokalemia (which exacerbates digoxin toxicity), require immediate escalation and the withholding of the diuretic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medications and identify required safety parameters.
Digoxin requires assessing the apical pulse for one minute and monitoring for toxicity. Potassium-wasting diuretics require monitoring serum potassium to prevent hypokalemia, which worsens digoxin toxicity.
Understanding the pharmacokinetics and interactions of the drugs ensures safe administration.
2
Evaluate the clinical data provided in the options against established norms.
A digoxin level of 3.2 ng/mL is toxic (normal is typically 0.5-2.0 ng/mL). A potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is hypokalemic (normal is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L).
Nurses must recognize critical laboratory values to safely withhold medications and alert the care team.
3
Assess the procedural interventions against the practical nurse (PN) scope of practice and the medication rights.
Intravenous push (IVP) administration is out of scope. Room numbers are invalid identifiers. Direct questioning of name and date of birth aligns with strict medication administration rights.
Maintaining practice boundaries and adhering to universal safety protocols prevents adverse events.

Key Concept

Pharmacological Therapies, Safe Medication Administration, and PN Scope of Practice
Question 648Question →

A young adult arrives at an outpatient clinic for a routine wellness check and is scheduled to receive the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization. While filling out the pre-assessment questionnaire, the client mentions missing her last menstrual cycle and having a positive home pregnancy test three days ago. Based on these findings, which action should the practical nurse implement?

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Answer: Explain that this specific vaccine formulation is unsafe during pregnancy and report the information to the attending provider.

Answer

Explain that this specific vaccine formulation is unsafe during pregnancy and report the information to the attending provider.
The MMR vaccine is a live-attenuated virus. Administering it during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome and other severe teratogenic effects. The practical nurse acts safely and within scope by identifying this absolute contraindication from the pre-assessment data, withholding the injection, and promptly reporting the client's potential pregnancy status to the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current physiological status against the prescribed pharmacological therapy.
The client has a positive pregnancy test, and the prescribed medication is the MMR immunization.
Identifying potential contraindications is a critical safety step prior to administering any medication or biological agent.
2
Determine the safety profile of the specific vaccine during pregnancy.
The MMR vaccine is a live-attenuated virus formulation, which is strictly contraindicated during pregnancy due to documented teratogenic risks.
Live-attenuated viruses can cross the placental barrier and cause severe congenital anomalies.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The practical nurse must withhold the immunization, reinforce to the client that it is unsafe, and alert the prescribing healthcare provider.
Ensuring client safety by holding contraindicated medications and communicating critical findings to the provider are foundational responsibilities of the practical nurse.

Key Concept

Live-attenuated vaccines (such as MMR and varicella) are strictly contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of severe congenital abnormalities. The practical nurse must routinely screen for pregnancy before administration, withhold the vaccine if pregnancy is suspected, and notify the healthcare provider.
Question 649Question →

A practical nurse is evaluating an adult client who underwent a percutaneous liver biopsy 22 hours prior. The client's baseline vital signs included a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg124/78\text{ mm Hg} and a heart rate of 76 beats/min76\text{ beats/min}. The nurse's current assessment reveals a blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg92/56\text{ mm Hg} and a heart rate of 112 beats/min112\text{ beats/min}. The client reports feeling dizzy and having mild right shoulder pain. What is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Alert the supervising registered nurse regarding the assessment findings.

Answer

Alert the supervising registered nurse regarding the assessment findings.
The client's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, dizziness, and right shoulder pain (referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation) are classic signs of internal hemorrhage following a liver biopsy. The practical nurse must immediately escalate these findings to the registered nurse for prompt intervention, as the client is exhibiting signs of impending hypovolemic shock and compromised circulation. Addressing the circulatory collapse is the absolute highest priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current vital signs and compare them to the client's pre-procedure baseline.
The blood pressure has dropped significantly and the heart rate has increased, indicating new-onset hypotension and tachycardia.
Identifying trends and recognizing deviations from the baseline is essential for detecting post-procedural complications.
2
Evaluate the client's reported symptoms (dizziness and right shoulder pain) in the context of a recent liver biopsy.
The lightheadedness correlates with the hypotension, and the right shoulder pain is a classic sign of referred pain from blood irritating the diaphragm.
Synthesizing objective vital sign data with subjective symptoms determines the clinical severity of the situation.
3
Determine the priority nursing action based on the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The clinical picture strongly suggests hemorrhagic shock, requiring immediate escalation to the registered nurse rather than independent symptomatic management.
The LPN must advocate for client safety by prioritizing airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) and reporting critical changes that require RN assessment and provider intervention.

Key Concept

Recognizing and Escalating Signs of Hemorrhagic Shock
Question 650Question →

A practical nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled abdominal surgery. To reduce the risk of perioperative complications, which actions must the nurse ensure are completed before the client is transported to the operating room? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Verifying the client's adherence to the prescribed nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status.; Confirming the surgical consent document contains the client's signature.; Instructing the client to empty their bladder prior to receiving any preoperative sedatives.

Answer

The correct actions include verifying NPO status, confirming the surgical consent is signed, and instructing the client to empty their bladder before receiving preoperative sedatives.
Preoperative preparation focuses heavily on reducing intraoperative and postoperative risks. Verifying NPO status prevents aspiration during anesthesia. Confirming a signed consent protects the client's legal rights and verifies readiness. Having the client void before administering preoperative sedatives prevents falls (as the client should not get out of bed after sedation) and reduces the risk of bladder distention or injury during the surgical procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary goal of the clinical scenario.
The goal is to determine appropriate practical nursing actions for preoperative risk reduction.
Understanding the phase of care (preoperative) helps identify which safety checklists and scope-of-practice rules apply.
2
Evaluate each potential action against the practical nurse's scope of practice and general safety protocols.
Verifying NPO status, confirming consent signatures, and having the client void are within scope and promote safety. Explaining surgical risks, administering IV push medications, and bypassing barcode scans are unsafe or out of scope.
Eliminating actions that violate foundational safety standards or exceed the licensed practical nurse's scope accurately isolates the correct choices.

Key Concept

Preoperative Risk Reduction and Scope of Practice
Question 651Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is planning care for a newly admitted client who requires intravenous (IV) therapy and is identified as a high fall risk. Which of the following actions should the PN implement to prevent accidents and errors? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the client's bed in the lowest locked position with the call bell in reach.; Provide the client with non-slip footwear before assisting with any ambulation.; Clear the pathway between the client's bed and the bathroom of any excess equipment or clutter.

Answer

The correct actions are maintaining the bed in the lowest locked position with the call bell in reach, providing non-slip footwear, and clearing the pathway between the bed and the bathroom.
Preventing accidents and errors requires a comprehensive approach focused on environmental safety and strict adherence to clinical protocols. Keeping the bed in the lowest locked position with the call bell within reach minimizes the distance of a potential fall and ensures the client can easily request help. Providing non-slip footwear prevents slipping during ambulation, and clearing the pathway to the bathroom eliminates tripping hazards, which are essential interventions for a client identified as a high fall risk.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk profile based on the scenario.
The client has a high risk for falls and is receiving IV therapy, which requires specific safety and error prevention interventions.
Identifying the specific clinical risks dictates the appropriate nursing interventions to maintain a safe environment.
2
Evaluate the environmental and physical interventions for fall prevention.
Keeping the bed low, clearing pathways of clutter, and providing non-slip footwear are all established, highly effective fall prevention strategies.
These actions directly address the physical risks associated with ambulation, transferring, and navigating the clinical environment.
3
Evaluate the procedural interventions for error and injury prevention.
Delegating nursing assessment, using yes/no questions for patient identification, and prematurely applying physical restraints are unsafe practices.
These actions violate the PN scope of practice, strict medication administration rights, and restraint protocols, significantly increasing the risk of client harm.

Key Concept

Multidisciplinary Safety Protocols and Error Prevention
Question 652Question →

During a shift on a busy medical-surgical unit, a practical nurse is assigned to care for several adult clients. Based on the standards for client rights and advocacy, which of the following actions by the practical nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Logging off the electronic health record system immediately after completing documentation for a client; Verifying a phone caller's identity using a pre-established facility privacy code before providing a health status update; Closing the room door and pulling the privacy curtain completely around the bed before performing a physical assessment

Answer

The appropriate actions are logging off the electronic health record, verifying caller identity with a privacy code, and ensuring physical privacy by closing the door and curtain.
Protecting client rights involves maintaining both physical privacy and information confidentiality. Logging off the computer prevents unauthorized access to electronic health records. Verifying a caller's identity using a designated code ensures information is only shared with authorized individuals. Providing physical privacy during assessments respects the client's dignity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each intervention against the principles of client rights, confidentiality, and the practical nurse scope of practice.
Identify actions that protect privacy and fall within the correct scope.
Client advocacy requires nurses to protect both medical information and physical dignity.
2
Identify actions that violate confidentiality or scope of practice.
Eliminate the options involving public discussions, providing primary surgical explanations, and bypassing restraint alternatives.
These actions breach HIPAA, exceed the PN role in informed consent, and violate the right to a least restrictive environment.

Key Concept

Client Rights, Confidentiality, and the Practical Nurse Scope of Practice
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 653Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to transport a client to the radiology department for a prescribed scan. The client is diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis and has an uncontained, draining methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) wound on the right lower leg. Which action by the PN represents the safest standard of practice?

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Answer: Secure a clean dressing over the draining wound, place a standard surgical mask over the client's nose and mouth, and notify the radiology department.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to ensure source control by placing a standard surgical mask on the client to contain respiratory secretions and securely covering the draining wound with a clean dressing, followed by notifying the receiving department of the required precautions.
When transporting a client on simultaneous airborne and contact precautions, the focus is on source control to protect the environment and others. Placing a standard surgical mask on the client effectively traps expelled respiratory droplets, and covering the draining wound contains the infectious exudate. Notifying the receiving department allows them to prepare the necessary isolation protocols before the client arrives.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the required isolation precautions based on the client's active diagnoses.
Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions; an uncontained MRSA wound requires contact precautions.
Identifying the transmission routes is essential to determine the appropriate protective measures required during transport outside the negative pressure room.
2
Determine the appropriate method for client transport under airborne precautions.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask to filter expelled droplets.
A surgical mask provides effective source control for a coughing client. An N95 respirator is intended for staff inhalation protection and increases the client's work of breathing unnecessarily.
3
Determine the appropriate method for client transport under contact precautions.
The uncontained, draining wound must be covered with a clean, secure dressing.
Covering the wound prevents the physical transfer of MRSA to the environment or to other individuals during movement through public facility corridors.
4
Evaluate the distractors regarding staff actions and professional scope of practice.
Staff do not wear PPE in hallways to avoid environmental cross-contamination, and PNs do not administer IV push medications.
Adhering to both facility transport policies and the legal PN scope of practice ensures comprehensive clinical safety.

Key Concept

During transport of clients on airborne and contact precautions, the primary goal is source control (e.g., the client wears a surgical mask, wounds are covered), rather than the nurse wearing full PPE in public areas. Additionally, PNs must remain within their scope of practice, which excludes administering IV push medications.
Question 654Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the daily tasks for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which planned action demonstrates correct adherence to transmission-based precautions and falls safely within the PN's scope of practice?

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Answer: Dedicating a reusable electronic thermometer and blood pressure cuff to stay inside the room of a client who has a positive culture for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE).

Answer

The correct action is dedicating a reusable electronic thermometer and blood pressure cuff to stay inside the room of a client who has a positive culture for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE).
For clients on contact precautions, such as those infected with vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE), infection control standards require the use of dedicated client care equipment. Leaving items like a blood pressure cuff and thermometer inside the room prevents the transmission of the pathogen to other areas. Executing this standard protocol is a safe, appropriate action that falls comfortably within the practical nurse's scope of practice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each option to determine if the infection control procedure described follows current CDC guidelines for transmission-based precautions.
Transporting a TB client requires a surgical mask (not N95) on the client. Removing PPE for MRSA must occur inside the room (not the hallway). VRE requires dedicated equipment inside the room.
Identifying precise infection control rules eliminates incorrect procedural choices.
2
Evaluate the remaining actions against the standardized scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN).
Performing an initial, comprehensive admission assessment to determine isolation needs for an undiagnosed condition requires RN-level clinical judgment.
The PN must recognize which tasks can be safely and legally performed or delegated.
3
Synthesize the findings to select the single action that satisfies both safe infection control and legal scope of practice.
Dedicating equipment for a VRE client is the only action that is both clinically correct and within the PN's professional boundaries.
Only one option completely adheres to both safety standards and nursing regulations.

Key Concept

Integration of Transmission-Based Precautions and PN Scope of Practice
Question 655Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing safety protocols and providing care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following nursing actions demonstrate appropriate implementation of accident, error, and injury prevention principles? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the client's name and date of birth using their identification band before administering routine medications.; Move a client who is experiencing severe agitation to a room closer to the nurses' station and activate a bed alarm.; Ensure the bed is in the lowest position with the wheels locked for a client who recently received an opioid analgesic.

Answer

The correct actions include verifying two distinct client identifiers (name and date of birth), moving an agitated client closer to the nurses' station while activating a bed alarm, and keeping the bed in the lowest position with locked wheels for a client receiving opioids.
The correct actions directly mitigate environmental and procedural risks. Verifying two distinct identifiers (such as name and date of birth) on the client's identification band is a mandatory standard to prevent medication errors. Moving an agitated client closer to the nurses' station and using a bed alarm are appropriate least-restrictive alternatives to physical restraints. Keeping the bed in the lowest position with wheels locked minimizes the risk of severe injury if a client attempts to get up, which is especially critical after administering fall-risk medications like opioids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each option against established safety protocols for medication administration, fall prevention, and restraint use.
Identified that verifying name and date of birth on the ID band meets national safety goals for patient identification.
Room numbers are not acceptable identifiers, eliminating the option about using the room number.
2
Analyze options related to client behavior and fall risks.
Identified that moving an agitated client near the nurses' station and keeping the bed low for a client on opioids are safe, proactive injury prevention strategies.
These actions address high-risk situations (agitation and sedation) using least-restrictive methods.
3
Assess options related to restraints and acute cognitive changes.
Determined that applying restraints before trying alternatives and dismissing sudden confusion as normal aging violate core safety standards.
Restraints are a last resort, and acute delirium is a medical emergency that increases injury risk, not a normal aging change.

Key Concept

Implementation of accident, error, and injury prevention protocols requires strict adherence to medication administration rights, utilization of least-restrictive restraint alternatives, proactive fall prevention strategies, and the prompt recognition of acute safety hazards like delirium.
Question 656Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is providing morning basic care for an older adult client on the third day following a partial gastrectomy. The client is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a jejunostomy tube, requires extensive assistance with all personal hygiene, and has a documented history of early-stage dementia. Which interventions should the PN include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees while assisting the client with a bed bath and repositioning.; Cleanse the jejunostomy tube insertion site gently with warm water and mild soap during daily hygiene, patting the skin dry.; Apply a moisture-barrier ointment to the client's perineal area and sacrum following each episode of incontinence.

Answer

The correct actions are to maintain head-of-bed elevation during hygiene, cleanse the tube insertion site with mild soap and water, and apply moisture-barrier ointment after incontinence.
The correct interventions prioritize physiological safety and hygiene within the practical nursing scope. Maintaining a 30 to 45-degree elevation during care prevents aspiration of continuous feedings. Cleansing the jejunostomy site and applying perineal barrier creams are fundamental, evidence-based practices for preserving skin integrity in vulnerable, bedbound clients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's primary risk factors based on the scenario.
The client is at high risk for aspiration (continuous enteral feeding), skin breakdown (incontinence, bed rest), and post-operative complications (gastrectomy).
Recognizing specific vulnerabilities directs the selection of safe basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety of positioning during hygiene tasks.
The head of the bed must remain elevated to prevent aspiration; laying the client flat without pausing the feeding is contraindicated.
Continuous enteral nutrition requires airway protection at all times, including during bed baths and linen changes.
3
Differentiate between PN scope of practice and tasks requiring RN assessment.
Cleansing the stoma and applying barrier creams are within the PN scope, while evaluating swallowing ability for diet transition is an RN responsibility.
Nurses must strictly adhere to their legal scope of practice when implementing care.
4
Analyze the significance of the client's sudden agitation.
Sudden agitation is recognized as acute delirium or a physiological complication, not a normal progression of dementia.
Older adults are highly susceptible to acute delirium; attributing sudden changes to baseline dementia delays critical intervention.

Key Concept

Providing safe basic care and comfort requires synthesizing airway protection (aspiration precautions), maintaining skin integrity, recognizing acute cognitive changes, and adhering to the legal scope of practice.
Question 657Question →

A pregnant client at 12 weeks of gestation is being evaluated at an obstetric clinic. While taking vital signs, the client states to the practical nurse, 'I still have a glass of wine on the weekends because it helps me unwind.' Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Document the client's statement about alcohol consumption as a direct quote in the electronic health record.; Explain to the client that there is no established safe level of alcohol intake during any stage of pregnancy.; Communicate the client's reported alcohol use to the healthcare provider or supervising registered nurse.

Answer

The practical nurse should document the exact quote, explain that no amount of alcohol is safe during pregnancy, and report the finding to the supervising nurse or provider.
When a client discloses a high-risk behavior such as alcohol use during pregnancy, the practical nurse must prioritize safety, objective documentation, and interdisciplinary communication. The correct interventions include providing established, factual education that no level of alcohol is safe, documenting the client's subjective data exactly as stated, and collaborating by reporting the information to the RN or provider for further assessment and intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement to identify the high-risk behavior.
The client is consuming alcohol during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Recognizing the risk is the first step in determining appropriate nursing interventions.
2
Determine the appropriate health promotion teaching.
Identify that the client needs evidence-based information stating no alcohol is safe during pregnancy.
Providing factual health education aligns with the practical nursing scope of practice for health promotion.
3
Identify required documentation and reporting actions.
The nurse must document the exact quote objectively and report the finding up the chain of command.
Accurate data collection and collaboration are essential to ensure the RN and provider can arrange necessary support services.
4
Eliminate actions that violate therapeutic communication, scope of practice, or privacy laws.
Discard options involving asking 'why', independently writing care plans, or sharing data with family.
These actions represent common clinical and legal errors in nursing practice.

Key Concept

Identifying and managing high-risk behaviors during pregnancy within the practical nursing scope.
Question 658Question →

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assigned to care for a client recently admitted from a long-term care facility. The client has an unstageable sacral pressure injury, a documented history of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), and has just developed profuse, watery diarrhea. A stool specimen is pending for Clostridioides difficile. Which actions should the LPN implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Don a fluid-resistant isolation gown and clean gloves before crossing the threshold into the room.; Ensure a dedicated disposable thermometer and blood pressure cuff are kept exclusively inside the client's room.; Maintain the client in a private room equipped with a dedicated toilet or bedside commode.

Answer

The correct actions include donning an isolation gown and clean gloves before entering the room, ensuring dedicated disposable equipment is kept inside the room, and maintaining the client in a private room with a dedicated toilet.
The client's presentation of a multidrug-resistant organism (MRSA) and suspected C. difficile requires strict Contact and Enteric Precautions. The nurse must don a gown and gloves before entering the environment to prevent uniform contamination. To contain the pathogens, the client must be isolated in a private room with a dedicated toilet, and all assessment equipment (like stethoscopes and blood pressure cuffs) must remain in the room exclusively for that client's use.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the transmission risks presented by the client's condition.
The client requires Contact Precautions for MRSA and Enteric Contact Precautions for suspected C. difficile.
Different pathogens require specific infection control measures; suspected C. difficile mandates strict spore-elimination protocols.
2
Evaluate the personal protective equipment (PPE) and room assignment requirements.
A gown and gloves are required upon entry. A private room with a dedicated bathroom and dedicated medical equipment are necessary.
These environmental and physical barriers prevent the direct and indirect transmission of multidrug-resistant organisms and infectious diarrhea.
3
Determine the correct hand hygiene method for this specific clinical scenario.
Soap and water must be used instead of alcohol-based hand rub.
Alcohol does not eradicate C. difficile spores; the mechanical friction of washing with soap and water is required to physically remove them from the hands.
4
Review the proposed nursing interventions against the LPN/LVN scope of practice.
The initial comprehensive assessment of the pressure injury must be deferred to the RN.
While an LPN can perform routine wound care and gather ongoing data, initial assessments of complex or unstageable wounds require RN-level clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Integration of Enteric Contact Precautions, PPE protocols, and LPN scope of practice
Question 659Question →

A practical nurse is preparing a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis and a heavily draining, uncontained methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) wound on the right lower extremity for an essential transport to the radiology department. Which action by the nurse represents the most appropriate management of transmission-based precautions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply a clean, intact dressing over the draining wound, place a standard surgical mask on the client's face, and notify the radiology department of the required isolation protocols.

Answer

Apply a clean, intact dressing over the draining wound, place a standard surgical mask on the client's face, and notify the radiology department of the required isolation protocols.
When a client requiring both airborne and contact precautions must leave their negative-pressure room, the primary nursing goal is to contain the pathogens at the source. This is effectively achieved by covering the infected wound with a clean, dry dressing and having the client wear a standard surgical mask to trap expelled respiratory droplets. The receiving department must always be notified in advance so they can prepare the appropriate environment and don necessary personal protective equipment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission-based precautions required for the client's diagnoses.
The client requires Airborne Precautions for active pulmonary tuberculosis and Contact Precautions for the draining MRSA wound.
Different pathogens require specific containment strategies to prevent transmission to healthcare workers, other clients, and the environment.
2
Determine the protocol for transporting a client on Airborne Precautions.
The client must wear a standard surgical mask over their nose and mouth to trap expelled droplet nuclei at the source.
Clients do not wear N95 respirators; the standard surgical mask is sufficient to contain their secretions during essential transport.
3
Determine the protocol for transporting a client on Contact Precautions.
The infected area (the heavily draining wound) must be completely covered and contained with a clean, dry dressing.
Containing the wound prevents the shedding of MRSA bacteria onto the wheelchair, stretcher, or hospital corridors.
4
Formulate a safe transport plan that includes interdepartmental communication.
The nurse contains both sources of infection, ensures the transport staff does not wear contaminated PPE in the hallways, and alerts the radiology department.
Clear communication ensures the receiving department has appropriate PPE ready and can manage the room's ventilation and cleaning protocols after the procedure.

Key Concept

Management of concurrent Airborne and Contact precautions during client transport
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 660Question →

An older adult client is hospitalized for a lower respiratory tract infection. The medical history indicates chronic, daily alcohol consumption. Thirty-six hours after admission, the client suddenly exhibits profound disorientation, severe agitation, and claims to see insects crawling on the ceiling. Which action is most appropriate for the practical nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remain in the room to protect the client from injury while directing another staff member to alert the registered nurse.

Answer

Remain in the room to protect the client from injury while directing another staff member to alert the registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium, a medical emergency requiring immediate pharmacological intervention and rigorous safety measures. The practical nurse's priority is to ensure the client's physical safety by remaining present, while simultaneously delegating the task of notifying the registered nurse (RN). The RN is required to perform a comprehensive assessment and administer the necessary intravenous medications.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and timeline.
The sudden onset of severe agitation, disorientation, and visual hallucinations 36 hours after admission in a client with chronic alcohol use strongly indicates alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens).
Recognizing life-threatening withdrawal complications is the crucial first step in prioritizing care.
2
Prioritize interventions based on the nursing process and safety principles.
The client is actively hallucinating and severely agitated, placing them at an immediate high risk for falls, self-injury, or elopement.
Physical safety takes absolute precedence in acute psychiatric or substance withdrawal emergencies.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The practical nurse must maintain a safe environment by staying with the client while delegating the notification of the registered nurse to another staff member.
Scope of practice dictates that registered nurses must perform the comprehensive assessment and administer the intravenous medications required for an unstable client experiencing acute withdrawal.

Key Concept

Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium and Practical Nurse Scope of Practice
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