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Question 701Question →

During the morning handoff, a practical nurse (PN) receives an assignment for a resident recently transferred from a skilled nursing facility. The resident has a confirmed diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis and is also experiencing severe diarrhea associated with a Clostridioides difficile infection. Which of the following infection control interventions must the PN implement? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Don a fit-tested N95 respirator, disposable gown, and gloves before entering the client's room.; Perform hand hygiene strictly using soap and water rather than an alcohol-based hand rub.; Maintain dedicated, noncritical medical equipment such as a stethoscope and blood pressure cuff inside the client's room.

Answer

The PN must don an N95 respirator, gown, and gloves prior to entry; use soap and water for hand hygiene; and leave dedicated noncritical equipment inside the client's room.
The client requires a combination of Airborne Precautions for tuberculosis and enteric Contact Precautions for C. diff. This necessitates wearing a gown, gloves, and a fit-tested N95 respirator upon entry. Because C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers, the nurse must meticulously wash hands with soap and water. Furthermore, to prevent cross-contamination, dedicated noncritical equipment must remain strictly in the client's room.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's infectious pathogens.
The client has active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) and Clostridioides difficile (C. diff).
Identifying the pathogens determines which transmission-based precautions are legally and clinically mandated.
2
Determine the required isolation categories.
TB requires Airborne Precautions (negative-pressure room, N95 respirator). C. diff requires Contact Precautions (gown, gloves, dedicated equipment) and enteric hygiene protocols.
The nurse must synthesize multiple protocols when a client has co-infections.
3
Evaluate the appropriate hand hygiene method.
Soap and water must be used instead of alcohol-based sanitizers.
C. diff forms spores that are entirely unaffected by alcohol; only the mechanical friction of washing removes them.
4
Apply the correct doffing sequence principles.
Gowns and gloves are removed inside the room, but the N95 must be kept on until the nurse has exited the room and shut the door.
Removing the respirator inside the room exposes the nurse's respiratory tract to airborne infectious nuclei.
5
Apply the legal scope of practice regarding delegation.
The nurse must perform the respiratory assessment rather than assigning it to the UAP.
Assessment and clinical evaluation are out of the scope of practice for unlicensed personnel.

Key Concept

Synthesis of Multiple Transmission-Based Precautions and Scope of Practice
Question 702Question →

During routine environmental rounds on a rehabilitation unit, a practical nurse observes the care environment of an older adult client. The client has right-sided hemiparesis from a recent stroke, is at high fall risk, and requires contact precautions. Which observations indicate that the staff has implemented appropriate accident and error prevention measures? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: The bedside commode is positioned securely on the client's left side with the locking casters engaged.; The client's frequently used personal items and water pitcher are arranged on a table on their left side.; A pressure-sensitive bed exit alarm is engaged and the call bell is placed within the client's immediate grasp.

Answer

The correct observations that indicate proper safety measures are positioning the commode and personal items on the client's strong (left) side, and utilizing a bed alarm with an accessible call light.
Implementing least-restrictive fall precautions (such as bed alarms), accommodating physical deficits by placing necessary items on the client's strong side, and maintaining clear access to communication devices are fundamental standards for preventing client injury and promoting a safe care environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's specific clinical risk factors.
The client is at risk due to right-sided hemiparesis, high fall risk, older age, and contact precautions.
Identifying individual deficits is required to evaluate whether the environment is safe.
2
Evaluate the placement of objects in the room relative to the client's physical deficits.
Items and the commode are placed on the left side, which is safe because the right side is weak.
Clients must use their unaffected side for bearing weight and reaching to prevent falls.
3
Assess the restraint and monitoring interventions observed.
Using a bed alarm is a safe, least-restrictive alternative, whereas using four side rails is an unsafe physical restraint.
Safety standards mandate the use of least-restrictive measures to prevent injury.
4
Review the staff behaviors regarding infection control and cognitive assessment.
Doffing gloves last is a PPE sequence error. Normalizing sudden confusion is a clinical judgment error.
Improper PPE sequence risks pathogen transmission, and ignoring acute confusion delays treatment for potentially life-threatening delirium.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention in the Rehabilitation Environment
Question 703Question →

A practical nurse (PN) arrives for the day shift on a medical-surgical unit and receives the client assignment sheet from the charge nurse. Arrange the following actions the PN should take to ensure safe and legal care in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is to first review the assignment, identify the out-of-scope task (blood transfusion), communicate the concern to the charge nurse, request reassignment of that client to an RN, and finally accept the modified, safe assignment.
When receiving a client assignment, the practical nurse (PN) must first systematically review the delegated tasks. If an out-of-scope task is identified, such as a blood transfusion (which requires RN-level assessment and intervention), the PN must immediately notify the delegating charge nurse. The PN must then request that the specific client be reassigned to an RN to ensure client safety and legal compliance. Only after the assignment is modified to fit the PN's legal scope of practice should the PN accept the assignment and begin receiving the shift report.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the assigned clients' diagnoses, acuities, and scheduled treatments.
The PN gains a full understanding of the expectations and care requirements for the shift.
Before accepting any assignment, a nurse must know what is being asked of them to determine if it is safe and appropriate for their licensure level.
2
Identify that one assigned client requires a blood transfusion, which is outside the PN scope of practice.
The PN recognizes a critical conflict between the assignment and their legal authorization.
PNs must practice within the boundaries defined by their state's Nurse Practice Act. Blood transfusions are an RN-level skill due to the risk of severe reactions and the need for comprehensive assessment.
3
Approach the charge nurse promptly to discuss the scope of practice limitation.
The delegating nurse is made aware of the unsafe assignment.
Professional communication is essential. The charge nurse cannot fix an unsafe assignment if they are unaware of the PN's scope limitations or the specific conflict.
4
Request that the client requiring the blood transfusion be reassigned to a registered nurse (RN).
A collaborative plan is proposed to ensure the client receives appropriate and legal care.
The PN advocates for the client by ensuring a qualified RN manages the high-acuity, complex task of a blood transfusion.
5
Accept the modified assignment and proceed to receive the shift handoff report.
The PN safely begins their shift with an appropriate client load.
Once the assignment is adjusted to fall within the PN's legal scope of practice, it is safe to accept accountability for the clients and proceed with providing care.

Key Concept

The practical nurse (PN) is legally accountable for accepting only assignments that fall within their authorized scope of practice and must promptly collaborate with the delegating nurse to resolve any unsafe assignments.
Question 704Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client on a telemetry unit who is scheduled for a permanent pacemaker insertion in one hour. The client has already signed the informed consent document. While the PN is checking the client's morning vital signs, the client states, "I cannot go through with this. I do not want the pacemaker." Place the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first explore the client's statement, then withhold preoperative sedatives, followed by notifying the healthcare provider and charge nurse, and finally documenting the events in the medical record.
The correct sequence follows the nursing process and legal guidelines for informed consent. The PN first assesses the situation (data collection), implements immediate safety measures (withholding sedatives), communicates the findings to the responsible provider (reporting), and finally records the events (documentation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Explore the client's statement
The PN understands the client's reasoning and confirms their intent to refuse.
Data collection is the first step in the nursing process.
2
Withhold preoperative sedatives
Client safety is maintained and cognitive function remains intact.
Preoperative medications can alter mental status, which must be clear for any subsequent discussions about consent with the provider.
3
Notify the healthcare provider and charge nurse
The appropriate personnel are informed to manage the clinical and scheduling implications.
The provider is legally responsible for discussing the risks of refusing the procedure with the client. The PN's scope is to report the refusal, not to counsel on risks.
4
Document the events in the medical record
A clear, legal timeline of the events is established.
Documentation should reflect the client's exact words, nursing actions taken, and who was notified.

Key Concept

A competent client has the right to withdraw informed consent at any time. The PN's role is to verify the refusal, ensure client safety, report the decision to the provider, and document the event accurately.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 705Question →

An unconscious client requires morning oral hygiene. To prevent aspiration and ensure safety, in what order should the practical nurse complete the following steps? Arrange the actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence for providing oral care to an unconscious client begins with lateral positioning to prevent aspiration, followed by placing protective linens, safely opening the mouth with a padded blade, performing the cleaning, and finally suctioning excess fluids.
When providing oral care to an unconscious client, the absolute priority is preventing aspiration. Therefore, positioning the client laterally (side-lying) is the crucial first step. Once the airway is protected by gravity, the nurse protects the linens, safely opens the mouth using a padded instrument, cleans the oral cavity, and finally suctions the remaining fluids to ensure the mouth is clear and safe.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client in a side-lying (lateral) posture with the head turned to the side.
The airway is protected from introduced fluids.
This utilizes gravity to allow fluids to drain out of the mouth, significantly reducing the risk of pulmonary aspiration.
2
Place a waterproof pad and towel under the client's chin with an emesis basin nearby.
The client's gown and bed linens remain dry and clean.
Preparing the immediate area provides a receptacle for the draining fluids and maintains hygiene.
3
Carefully separate the client's upper and lower teeth using a padded tongue blade.
The oral cavity becomes accessible for the cleaning procedure.
Unconscious clients may exhibit a bite reflex; a padded blade protects both the client's dentition and the nurse's fingers.
4
Clean the teeth, gums, and oral mucosa using a moistened soft toothbrush.
Plaque, bacteria, and crusts are removed from the oral cavity.
Routine cleaning maintains oral tissue integrity and reduces the bacterial load that can cause aspiration pneumonia.
5
Use a Yankauer suction catheter to remove excess oral secretions and rinse fluid.
The oral cavity is left clean and free of pooled liquids.
Immediate removal of residual fluids ensures the airway remains unobstructed after the hygiene procedure is complete.

Key Concept

Aspiration Precautions and Hygiene
Question 706Question →

During a shift assessment on an orthopedic unit, a practical nurse evaluates a client with a newly applied plaster cast on the lower left leg. The client describes an intense, throbbing pain that has worsened significantly despite receiving a scheduled intravenous analgesic one hour ago. The nurse observes that the client's toes are cool to the touch and the pedal pulse is weak. While the charge nurse is notifying the healthcare provider of these findings, which action should the practical nurse implement?

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Answer: Keep the affected extremity resting flat on the bed at the level of the client's heart

Answer

The nurse should keep the affected extremity resting flat on the bed at the level of the client's heart.
When compartment syndrome is suspected, the affected extremity must be maintained at the level of the heart. Elevating the limb above the heart decreases arterial pressure and further compromises tissue perfusion to the ischemic area. Lowering it below the heart increases venous congestion. Keeping it flat at heart level optimizes the balance of blood flow.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The intense pain unrelieved by medication, cool toes, and weak pedal pulse are classic signs of compromised circulation, specifically compartment syndrome.
Recognizing these signs is essential to determine that routine cast care is no longer appropriate.
2
Determine the physiological effect of positioning on a limb with compartment syndrome.
Elevating the limb decreases arterial blood flow, while lowering it increases venous pooling.
Improper positioning can cause irreversible tissue damage by starving the ischemic tissues of remaining arterial flow.
3
Select the intervention that prioritizes circulation and prevents further harm.
Placing the affected leg flat on the bed at heart level is the safest immediate action.
This supports optimal arterial perfusion without exacerbating venous congestion while awaiting emergency medical intervention.

Key Concept

Compartment Syndrome Positioning and Basic Care
Question 707Question →

A client in a subacute respiratory care unit is experiencing severe confusion and repeatedly attempts to remove their tracheostomy tube. After determining that alternative measures and verbal redirection are ineffective, the healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft limb restraints. In what order should the practical nurse (PN) perform the following actions to safely apply the devices? (Arrange the actions in the correct sequence, from first to last.)

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Explain the intervention, wrap the restraints around the wrists, attach the straps to the movable bed frame, check the fit with two fingers, and finally assess the distal neurovascular status.
The correct sequence prioritizes client communication and ethical care first, followed by the safe mechanical application of the devices. Once the devices are wrapped around the wrists and securely anchored to a movable frame with quick-release knots, the nurse must immediately verify the fit (two-finger space) to prevent constriction. Finally, a complete neurovascular assessment (pulses, color, temperature) must be performed and documented to ensure circulation and nerve function are intact.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Communicate with the client and family.
The rationale for the restraints is understood.
Ethical nursing practice requires informing the client and family about the need for protective devices prior to application, even if the client is confused or agitated.
2
Apply the soft limb restraints.
The restraints are physically placed on the client's wrists.
The device is applied to safely restrict movement that threatens the tracheostomy tube.
3
Secure the straps using quick-release knots.
The restraints are anchored to the movable part of the bed frame.
Securing the straps to the movable frame prevents injury when the bed's head or foot is adjusted. Quick-release knots allow for immediate removal during an emergency.
4
Check the tightness of the restraints.
Two fingers can slide beneath the restraint.
Verifying the fit prevents the mechanical compression of nerves and blood vessels, which could cause permanent damage.
5
Perform a neurovascular assessment.
Distal pulses, color, and temperature are evaluated.
A baseline post-application assessment ensures that the restraints have not compromised circulation or neurologic function to the extremities.

Key Concept

The safe application of physical restraints involves a systematic sequence prioritizing communication, correct mechanical application to a movable bed frame, and immediate neurovascular verification.
Question 708Question →

During a pediatric clinic visit, a child weighing 37.4 lb37.4\text{ lb} is diagnosed with acute otitis media. The primary health care provider prescribes cefdinir oral suspension at the maximum recommended dosage of 14 mg/kg/day14\text{ mg/kg/day}, to be administered in equally divided doses every 12 hours12\text{ hours}. The clinic pharmacy dispenses a multi-dose bottle of cefdinir powder with the following label instructions: "Reconstitute by adding 38 mL38\text{ mL} of sterile water to yield 60 mL60\text{ mL} of oral suspension with a concentration of 250 mg/5 mL250\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}."

The practical nurse is reinforcing medication administration instructions with the child's parents. How many milliliters (mL\text{mL}) should the nurse instruct the parents to administer for a single dose? (Record the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not include units in the answer.)

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Answer: 2.4

Answer

2.4
To solve this, first convert pounds to kilograms: 37.4 lb÷2.2=17 kg37.4\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 17\text{ kg}. Next, find the total daily dose: 17 kg×14 mg/kg/day=238 mg/day17\text{ kg} \times 14\text{ mg/kg/day} = 238\text{ mg/day}. Because it is given every 12 hours, divide by 2: 238÷2=119 mg/dose238 \div 2 = 119\text{ mg/dose}. Using the concentration of 250 mg250\text{ mg} in 5 mL5\text{ mL}, calculate the volume: (119 mg÷250 mg)×5 mL=2.38 mL(119\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 2.38\text{ mL}. Finally, round to the nearest tenth to get 2.42.4.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
37.4 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=17 kg37.4\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 17\text{ kg}
Weight-based pediatric dosages require the weight to be in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total daily medication dosage.
17 kg×14 mg/kg/day=238 mg/day17\text{ kg} \times 14\text{ mg/kg/day} = 238\text{ mg/day}
The prescription is written as a daily total based on the child's weight.
3
Calculate the single dose amount.
238 mg/day÷2 doses/day=119 mg/dose238\text{ mg/day} \div 2\text{ doses/day} = 119\text{ mg/dose}
The medication is ordered every 12 hours, meaning the total daily amount must be divided into 2 equal doses.
4
Calculate the volume to administer for one dose using the final concentration.
119 mg250 mg×5 mL=2.38 mL\frac{119\text{ mg}}{250\text{ mg}} \times 5\text{ mL} = 2.38\text{ mL}
The concentration is 250 mg250\text{ mg} per 5 mL5\text{ mL}. The reconstitution water volume (38 mL38\text{ mL}) and total yield (60 mL60\text{ mL}) are distractors and not used in the formula.
5
Round the calculated volume to the nearest tenth as instructed.
2.382.38 rounds to 2.42.4
Standard rounding rules state that if the hundredths digit is 5 or greater, round up the tenths digit.

Key Concept

Advanced Pediatric Dosage Calculation and Reconstitution Interpretation
Question 709Question →

A practical nurse is assisting with the preparation of a client with severe hepatic cirrhosis who is scheduled for a bedside paracentesis. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to minimize the risk of procedural complications, such as bladder perforation?

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes administrative safety (verifying consent), followed by physiological risk reduction (emptying the bladder), obtaining accurate baseline data, optimal client positioning, and finally, establishing the sterile field.
Preparing for a paracentesis requires a strategic sequence to ensure client safety. Consent must be verified first. The client must then empty their bladder to drastically reduce the risk of a bladder perforation when the needle is inserted. Baseline vitals, weight, and abdominal girth must be measured immediately after voiding for accuracy. The client is then placed upright so gravity pools the ascites in the lower abdomen, safely away from vital organs. Finally, the sterile field is established.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify informed consent.
Legal and administrative safety is established.
No preparatory actions should begin until the client has officially consented to the procedure.
2
Have the client empty their bladder.
The bladder is decompressed and moves safely down into the pelvis.
A full bladder extends upward into the abdominal cavity, greatly increasing the risk of accidental puncture by the paracentesis needle.
3
Obtain baseline vital signs, weight, and abdominal girth.
Accurate physiological baseline data is recorded.
Measurements must be taken after the bladder is emptied so that the weight and girth solely reflect the body mass and ascitic fluid, ensuring accurate post-procedure evaluation.
4
Position the client upright (high Fowler's or sitting).
The ascitic fluid pools in the lower abdominal cavity.
Gravity forces the fluid downward, making it easier to drain and naturally shifting the intestines away from the planned puncture site.
5
Prepare the sterile tray and equipment.
The sterile field is ready for the provider.
Supplies should be opened and prepared immediately before the procedure begins to reduce the risk of environmental contamination.

Key Concept

Client Preparation and Risk Reduction for Invasive Procedures (Paracentesis)
Question 710Question →

An 82-year-old client who was previously oriented suddenly exhibits severe agitation and uncooperative behavior. A transfer is required from the mattress to a specialized seating device in the room. When determining the safest approach for client handling and equipment utilization, which actions should the practical nurse (PN) implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Engage the wheel-locking mechanisms on both the bed and the receiving chair prior to initiating the transfer.; Select a full-body mechanical sling lift rather than a motorized sit-to-stand device for this client.; Keep the bed in the lowest possible position and place high-impact fall mats on the floor next to the bed.

Answer

The correct actions are to engage the wheel-locking mechanisms, select a full-body mechanical sling lift, and keep the bed in the lowest possible position with fall mats in place.
Transferring an agitated and uncooperative client requires prioritizing environmental safety and minimizing manual lifting to protect both the client and staff from injury. Utilizing a full-body sling lift eliminates the need for the client to bear weight or follow commands (which a sit-to-stand lift requires). Locking wheels prevents equipment drift, and utilizing low bed positions with fall mats provides a safe environment for a client experiencing acute delirium.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's current cognitive and physical status.
The client is identified as suddenly agitated and uncooperative, increasing the risk of falls and ruling out active participation in the transfer.
Client cooperation and weight-bearing ability dictate the type of transfer equipment required.
2
Select the appropriate ergonomic transfer equipment.
A full-body mechanical sling lift is chosen over a sit-to-stand device.
Sit-to-stand lifts require the client to follow commands and bear weight safely, which this agitated client cannot do.
3
Implement environmental and equipment safety measures.
Wheel locks are engaged, the bed is kept low, and fall mats are deployed.
These actions mitigate the risk of severe injury if the agitated client attempts to self-transfer or becomes combative during equipment setup.

Key Concept

Safe use of mechanical transfer equipment and environmental safety modifications for cognitively impaired or agitated clients.
Question 711Question →

An older adult client is recovering on the medical-surgical unit 90 minutes after an image-guided percutaneous liver biopsy. The client is currently positioned on the right side with a rolled towel under the lower ribs. During a routine check, the client's blood pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, heart rate is 92 beats/minute, and they report a sudden onset of mild but persistent right shoulder pain. What is the priority action for the practical nurse to take?

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Answer: Inform the supervising registered nurse immediately about the client's reported symptoms.

Answer

Inform the supervising registered nurse immediately about the client's reported symptoms.
Right shoulder pain following a percutaneous liver biopsy is a classic presentation of referred pain caused by diaphragmatic irritation from a subcapsular hematoma or bile leak. Coupled with a heart rate of 92 beats/minute, this indicates a high likelihood of active internal bleeding. The practical nurse must prioritize client safety by immediately escalating these findings to the registered nurse for advanced assessment and rapid intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's post-procedure requirements.
The client had a highly vascular procedure (liver biopsy) and is at high risk for hemorrhage.
Understanding the specific risks of the procedure establishes the baseline for evaluating new data.
2
Evaluate the clinical data and the client's new symptom.
The client has slight tachycardia (92 bpm) and new right shoulder pain.
Vital signs and pain characteristics must be correlated with potential complications.
3
Correlate the shoulder pain with anatomical pathology.
Right shoulder pain is recognized as referred pain from the phrenic nerve due to blood or bile irritating the diaphragm.
Distinguishing expected discomfort from pathological referred pain is crucial for clinical judgment.
4
Determine the appropriate practical nursing action.
Escalate the finding immediately to the registered nurse.
A potential hemorrhage is unstable and requires comprehensive RN assessment and provider notification, which exceeds independent PN scope.

Key Concept

Recognition of referred pain as a sign of post-procedural internal hemorrhage
Question 712Question →

A practical nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours24\text{ hours} post-operative following a right total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the practical nurse identify as potential complications requiring immediate notification of the registered nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: The client's right calf is swollen, red, and warm to the touch.; The client reports a sudden onset of shortness of breath and an oxygen saturation of 88%88\% on room air.; The client's most recent serum hemoglobin level is 7.1 g/dL7.1\text{ g/dL}.

Answer

The findings that require immediate notification of the registered nurse are the swollen, red, and warm right calf; the sudden onset of shortness of breath with an oxygen saturation of 88%; and the critically low serum hemoglobin level of 7.1 g/dL.
The correct choices represent severe, life-threatening post-operative complications. A swollen, red, and warm calf suggests a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden shortness of breath and hypoxia suggest a pulmonary embolism (PE). A hemoglobin level of 7.1 g/dL is a critical laboratory value indicating severe anemia or potential hemorrhage. All of these require immediate escalation to the registered nurse for prompt medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each assessment finding to determine if it is an expected post-operative finding or a potential complication.
The calf symptoms, sudden shortness of breath, and low hemoglobin are identified as abnormal and potentially life-threatening.
Clients recovering from total joint arthroplasties carry a high risk for venous thromboembolism (DVT and PE) and significant blood loss.
2
Determine the appropriate scope of practice for the practical nurse regarding the identified abnormal findings.
The practical nurse must immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse for further assessment and provider notification.
The registered nurse is responsible for the overall nursing care plan, complex assessments, and coordinating emergency medical interventions.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Post-Operative Complications
Question 713Question →

A practical nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has just returned to the nursing unit after a percutaneous liver biopsy. Which of the following positions is most appropriate for the nurse to place the client in to prevent post-procedure complications?

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Answer: Right side-lying with a rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site

Answer

Right side-lying with a rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site
The correct position is right side-lying with a rolled towel under the puncture site because the liver is located on the right side of the body. Using the client's body weight to press against a towel provides continuous, direct pressure to the biopsy site, which is highly vascular, thereby minimizing the risk of hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure performed and the primary associated risk.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a high risk of internal bleeding due to the liver's high vascularity.
Understanding the procedure's complications is essential for determining the correct preventative nursing intervention.
2
Determine the anatomical location of the liver and the mechanism needed to stop bleeding.
The liver is located on the right side of the abdomen. Applying direct, localized pressure is required to promote hemostasis.
Matching the anatomical site with the physiological need for pressure guides the choice of positioning.
3
Select the client position that best achieves this clinical objective.
Positioning the client on their right side with a towel or pillow under the puncture site uses the client's own body weight to apply pressure.
This specific physical alignment is the standard of care for preventing hemorrhage following a liver biopsy.

Key Concept

Post-procedure positioning for hemostasis after a liver biopsy
Question 714Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing infection control procedures with unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) prior to providing morning care for a client with disseminated herpes zoster. The client is currently on airborne and contact precautions. Which statement by the PN provides the most accurate instruction?

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Answer: Ensure the client's room door remains completely closed, and remove your isolation gown and gloves inside the room before you exit.

Answer

The correct instruction is to ensure the client's room door remains completely closed, and remove the isolation gown and gloves inside the room before exiting.
The correct instruction accurately reflects both airborne and contact precaution protocols. Airborne precautions require the door to remain completely closed to maintain negative room pressure, containing aerosolized particles. Contact precautions dictate that contaminated PPE (gown and gloves) must be removed inside the client's room before crossing the threshold into the clean hallway environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the required precautions for disseminated herpes zoster.
The pathogen is transmitted via both airborne aerosols and direct contact, requiring both airborne and contact precautions.
Understanding the transmission route determines the necessary environmental controls and PPE.
2
Determine the environmental requirements for airborne precautions.
The client must be placed in a negative-pressure room with the door completely closed to contain aerosolized particles.
An open door breaks the negative pressure seal, allowing airborne pathogens to escape into the facility.
3
Determine the correct PPE selection and doffing sequence for the combined precautions.
An N95 respirator is required for entry. Upon leaving, the gown and gloves must be removed inside the room, while the N95 is removed outside.
Removing contaminated contact PPE inside the room prevents pathogen spread to clean areas, while keeping the N95 on until outside protects the healthcare worker from airborne particles lingering in the room.

Key Concept

Airborne and Contact Precautions for Disseminated Herpes Zoster
Question 715Question →

A practical nurse (PN) working in a skilled nursing facility receives various requests for client health information. Match each specific request with the appropriate nursing action to maintain client confidentiality and comply with privacy regulations.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A community organization leader calls requesting a list of all facility residents who are members of their group.
The facility's clinical dietitian requests to view a client's electronic health record to verify a newly prescribed dysphagia diet.
A client's adult child asks the PN for a printed copy of the client's entire medical record to take to an external specialist.
A triage nurse from a receiving acute care hospital calls to obtain a transferred client's baseline neurological status.

Matches

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Answer

Match the community leader to declining the request, the dietitian to permitting access, the adult child to referring to medical records, and the triage nurse to sharing clinical details.
Appropriate maintenance of confidentiality requires nurses to differentiate between permissible disclosures (e.g., interdisciplinary team members, transfer of care) and impermissible disclosures (e.g., community organizations without consent). It also requires knowing facility protocols for formal record releases.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the community leader's request for a list of residents.
Match with declining the request.
HIPAA prohibits sharing protected health information (PHI), including facility presence, with outside organizations without explicit client consent.
2
Evaluate the dietitian's request to view the health record.
Match with permitting access.
Healthcare team members involved in direct care have a legitimate 'need to know' to ensure treatments and diets are safely implemented.
3
Evaluate the adult child's request for the entire printed medical record.
Match with referring to the medical records department.
Nurses on the floor do not process large-scale chart releases; this requires proper HIPAA authorization forms and verification through medical records.
4
Evaluate the receiving triage nurse's request for neurological status.
Match with sharing the necessary clinical details.
PHI can be shared without additional consent for the purposes of treatment and continuity of care when a client is transferred between facilities.

Key Concept

Confidentiality and Information Security
Question 716Question →

A practical nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following a total thyroidectomy. The client reports neck discomfort and requests assistance with repositioning. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position and support the head and neck.

Answer

The nurse should maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position and support the head and neck.
The correct action demonstrates appropriate postoperative positioning for comfort and safety. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position decreases swelling and promotes optimal lung expansion. Supporting the head and neck with pillows or sandbags maintains a neutral alignment, avoiding tension or pulling on the surgical sutures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific risks.
The client had a total thyroidectomy, which carries high risks for airway compromise, neck edema, and strain on the suture line.
Understanding the anatomical risks dictates safe basic care and comfort measures.
2
Determine the optimal positioning for this specific postoperative client.
The semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees) with careful neck support in a neutral position is required.
Elevation reduces swelling and facilitates respiratory effort, while support prevents hyperextension of the neck.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for safety violations.
Flat positioning worsens edema; delegating to assistive personnel is unsafe due to the need for strict alignment; and giving fluids ignores airway safety protocols.
Distractors represent common procedural and prioritization errors in postoperative basic care.

Key Concept

Postoperative Basic Care and Positioning
Question 717Question →

A newly hired practical nurse (PN) is assigned to a palliative care unit. The healthcare team includes a registered nurse (RN) and assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following actions performed by the PN indicate an accurate understanding of role responsibilities and safe delegation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Directing the AP to provide routine oral hygiene for an unconscious client nearing the end of life; Performing focused data collection regarding the respiratory status of a client experiencing increased dyspnea; Administering a scheduled dose of subcutaneous morphine sulfate to manage a client's breakthrough pain

Answer

The correct actions include directing the AP to provide routine oral hygiene, performing focused data collection on a client's respiratory status, and administering a scheduled dose of subcutaneous morphine sulfate.
The practical nurse operates safely by delegating routine, non-invasive tasks like oral hygiene to the AP. Additionally, performing focused data collection on a client's respiratory status and administering subcutaneous medications like morphine are well within the legal scope of practice for a PN.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the tasks delegated to the assistive personnel (AP).
Providing routine oral hygiene to an unconscious client is a standard, non-invasive procedure with a predictable outcome.
Routine basic care tasks can be safely delegated to the AP.
2
Analyze the tasks performed directly by the practical nurse (PN) regarding client assessment and care planning.
The PN can perform focused data collection, but developing the initial comprehensive care plan is solely the responsibility of the registered nurse (RN).
The PN scope of practice involves assisting with care planning and collecting focused data, not initiating the primary comprehensive assessment.
3
Assess the medication administration and ethical responsibilities of the PN.
Administering subcutaneous medications is within the PN scope. Explaining surgical risks and discussing client information in public areas violate legal and ethical boundaries.
The provider must explain surgical risks for informed consent, and client confidentiality must be maintained at all times in accordance with HIPAA.

Key Concept

Practical Nurse (PN) Scope of Practice and Delegation
Question 718Question →

A practical nurse is providing basic care and comfort measures for a client who had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery 2 hours ago. The client is on strict bed rest and reports mild lower back ache. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place a small, rolled towel under the lumbar region of the client's back.; Use a low-profile fracture pan for elimination to minimize pelvic and leg movement.; Offer oral fluids frequently by keeping a water pitcher within the client's reach.

Answer

The correct actions are to place a rolled towel under the lumbar region, use a low-profile fracture pan for elimination, and offer oral fluids frequently.
After a femoral cardiac catheterization, the affected leg must remain straight and the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees to prevent hemorrhage. Placing a small rolled towel under the lumbar region effectively relieves lower back ache without compromising this required positioning. Using a low-profile fracture pan allows for safe elimination while keeping the right leg straight and minimizing pelvic movement. Encouraging oral fluids is a vital basic care measure to excrete the contrast medium used during the procedure and maintain hydration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the critical safety constraints for a post-femoral cardiac catheterization client.
The client must remain on strict bed rest with the affected (right) leg completely straight, and the head of the bed must not be elevated more than 30 degrees to prevent arterial bleeding.
Maintaining hemostasis at the femoral puncture site is the highest priority.
2
Evaluate the comfort and elimination options against the positioning constraints.
Providing a small lumbar roll and using a fracture pan allow the nurse to manage the client's back pain and elimination needs without flexing the hip or lifting the pelvis excessively.
Basic care must be adapted to fit strict procedural precautions.
3
Assess the remaining basic care interventions for safety and efficacy.
Offering oral fluids is safe and necessary to excrete contrast dye. Conversely, flexing the right knee, elevating the head to 45 degrees, or applying heat to the groin directly contradict safety protocols and risk hemorrhage.
Interventions that increase intra-abdominal pressure, bend the hip/knee, or cause vasodilation must be avoided.

Key Concept

Post-Procedure Basic Care and Positioning Precautions
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 719Question →

A client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and mild dementia is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) hydration. During the night, the client becomes abruptly agitated, attempts to rip out the IV catheter, and tries to climb over the bed rails. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement first to prevent self-harm?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Conceal the intravenous insertion site with a long-sleeved garment and position the client's bed in a highly visible area

Answer

The most appropriate action is to conceal the intravenous insertion site with a long-sleeved garment and position the client's bed in a highly visible area.
The PN must prioritize the least restrictive measures to ensure client safety. Camouflaging medical devices reduces visual triggers for confused clients, and moving them to a high-visibility area allows for close monitoring without resorting to physical or chemical restraints. Acute agitation could also indicate hypoxia or delirium resulting from the pneumonia, making non-restrictive safety management the critical first step before further physiological data collection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's immediate risks.
The client is at high risk for self-harm due to active attempts to remove the IV line and potential for falling while climbing out of bed.
Prioritizing client safety is the fundamental goal in accident and injury prevention.
2
Evaluate the clinical presentation against the client's baseline and medical history.
Sudden agitation in an older adult with pneumonia is identified as a potential sign of acute delirium or hypoxia, rather than expected dementia progression.
Accurate recognition of acute status changes prevents missed physiological diagnoses and guides appropriate, safe interventions.
3
Determine the most appropriate injury prevention strategy within the Practical Nurse (PN) scope of practice.
Physical restraints and IVP medications are ruled out because they violate the principle of the least restrictive environment and exceed the standard PN scope, respectively.
Nursing standards dictate utilizing the least invasive measures first and operating strictly within legal practice boundaries.
4
Select the optimal environmental and behavioral intervention.
Camouflaging the IV site and increasing direct observation are chosen as the immediate priority actions.
These measures effectively mitigate the immediate safety hazard while safely preparing the client for further physiological data collection.

Key Concept

Least Restrictive Alternatives and Scope of Practice in Delirium Management
Question 720Question →

A practical nurse is providing care for an adult client who is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids for the treatment of an acute gastrointestinal bleed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of complications and ensure client safety? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Inspect the client's stools and emesis for the presence of frank red blood or a coffee-ground appearance.; Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers before administering any prescribed medications.; Monitor the client's intravenous (IV) access site frequently for signs of infiltration, phlebitis, or bleeding.

Answer

The correct actions are to inspect stools and emesis for blood, verify the client's identity before medication administration, and monitor the IV site frequently.
To effectively reduce the risk of complications, the practical nurse must prioritize fundamental safety protocols and vigilant clinical monitoring. Verifying client identity prevents medication errors. Inspecting stools and emesis for blood allows for the early detection of recurrent hemorrhage. Finally, frequent monitoring of the IV site ensures that emergency fluids or blood products can be administered rapidly and safely if the client's condition suddenly deteriorates.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical situation and current risks.
The client is recovering from a gastrointestinal bleed and is receiving IV fluids, placing them at risk for recurrent hemorrhage, hypovolemic shock, localized IV complications, and medication errors.
Understanding the primary physiological and environmental risks allows the nurse to prioritize interventions that actively prevent complications.
2
Evaluate each nursing action for safety, effectiveness, and appropriate scope of practice.
Monitoring for bleeding, verifying identity, and checking IV patency are safe, appropriate actions within the practical nurse scope that actively reduce client risk.
These actions directly address the risk of medication errors, identify recurrent bleeding early, and ensure a safe route for emergency interventions.
3
Identify inappropriate or unsafe actions that increase client risk.
Delaying the report of a critically low hemoglobin level, ignoring early signs of shock, and delegating nursing assessments to UAP are unsafe actions.
These inappropriate actions violate safety protocols, delay life-saving medical interventions, and fall outside the legal scope of practice for delegation.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential
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