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Question 801Question →

A client has just returned to the unit after undergoing a lumbar puncture. To promote comfort and minimize the risk of a post-dural puncture headache, which position should the nurse assist the client into?

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Answer: Supine with the head of the bed flat

Answer

The correct position is supine with the head of the bed flat.
Maintaining a supine position with the head of the bed flat for several hours after a lumbar puncture helps prevent the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the puncture site, which is the primary cause of a post-dural puncture headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure the client just underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Different procedures require specific post-procedure positioning to prevent distinct complications.
2
Determine the primary risk associated with the immediate post-procedure period for a lumbar puncture.
The main risk is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, which leads to a severe post-dural puncture headache.
Understanding the specific complication guides the correct nursing intervention.
3
Select the position that minimizes this fluid leakage.
Keeping the client flat in a supine position prevents gravity from increasing CSF leakage from the spinal puncture site.
This is the standard basic care protocol for minimizing adverse effects following a lumbar puncture.

Key Concept

Post-procedure positioning for a lumbar puncture requires the client to remain flat to prevent spinal fluid leakage and severe headaches.
Estimated Time:45s
Question 802Question →

A practical nurse at an outpatient pediatric clinic is reviewing a developmental questionnaire completed by the caregivers of an 8-year-old client. Which of the following reported behaviors should the nurse recognize as expected developmental transitions for this age group? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Organizing a large collection of trading cards into specific, detailed categories.; Understanding that pouring water from a short, wide cup into a tall, narrow glass does not increase the volume.; Demonstrating a strong preference for forming friendships and playing in same-sex peer groups.

Answer

The expected developmental transitions for an 8-year-old include organizing items into specific categories, understanding the conservation of volume, and demonstrating a strong preference for same-sex peer groups.
School-age children (typically ages 6 to 12) are in Piaget's stage of concrete operations and Erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority. Expected developmental milestones for this age include the ability to classify and sort objects (such as organizing trading cards), understanding the concept of conservation (recognizing that volume or mass remains constant despite changes in shape or container), and preferring to socialize almost exclusively in same-sex peer groups or clubs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's developmental stage based on chronological age.
The client is 8 years old, which places them in the school-age developmental stage (typically ages 6 to 12).
Accurate age identification is required to correlate the child with Piaget's concrete operational stage and Erikson's industry versus inferiority stage.
2
Evaluate each reported behavior against the expected cognitive and psychosocial milestones for a school-age child.
Classification (organizing cards), conservation (understanding volume remains constant), and same-sex peer groups are recognized as normal for an 8-year-old.
School-age children transition from preoperational to concrete operational thought, gaining logical problem-solving skills, and shift their social focus to peers of the same sex.
3
Eliminate behaviors that correspond to earlier or later developmental stages.
Magical thinking is eliminated as a preschool trait, and abstract moral reasoning is eliminated as an adolescent trait.
Differentiating between adjacent developmental stages ensures the identification of findings that would require further assessment versus normal transitions.

Key Concept

School-Age Developmental Milestones (Concrete Operations and Industry vs. Inferiority)
Question 803Question →

A home health practical nurse (PN) visits an older adult client who has advanced macular degeneration and bilateral presbycusis. The client was prescribed a new anticholinergic medication two days ago. Upon arrival, the PN observes the client swatting frantically at the air, highly distressed, and stating, "I need to get these spider webs off me before they bite!" The client's skin is notably warm and flushed. Which of the following immediate actions should the PN take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Approach the client slowly from the front within their remaining field of vision while speaking in a clear, low-pitched voice.; Acknowledge the client's severe distress while calmly stating that the nurse does not see or feel any spider webs.; Obtain a complete set of vital signs and gather focused data regarding the recent medication change to report to the supervising registered nurse.

Answer

The correct actions involve safely approaching the client considering their specific sensory deficits, presenting reality while validating emotions, and collecting physiological data for suspected delirium.
The correct interventions address the client's baseline sensory deficits safely, utilize therapeutic communication by validating emotion while presenting reality, and recognize the critical need for physiological data collection due to signs of acute anticholinergic delirium.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's baseline sensory deficits (macular degeneration and presbycusis) and modify the physical approach to prevent startling them.
The nurse must approach from the front and use a low-pitched voice.
Sudden movements or high-pitched sounds can trigger further panic in a client with compromised sensory input.
2
Analyze the client's psychological state and formulate a therapeutic response.
The nurse validates the fear but presents reality regarding the spider webs.
Arguing escalates crisis, while playing along reinforces hallucinations. Presenting reality is the safest therapeutic approach.
3
Synthesize the recent medication history (anticholinergic) with new physical findings (warm, flushed skin and hallucinations) to recognize a potential medical emergency.
The nurse prioritizes obtaining vital signs and reporting to the RN.
Acute confusion and hallucinations in older adults often indicate delirium from physiological causes (e.g., medication toxicity), requiring immediate medical evaluation.

Key Concept

Sensory and Perceptual Alterations
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 804Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing morning medications in a substance use detoxification unit. A client approaches the medication window, loudly demands to be discharged immediately, bangs a fist on the counter, and stands aggressively close to another client who is waiting. Which immediate actions should the PN take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Set clear, concise limits regarding the disruptive behaviors using a neutral tone; Direct the bystander client to safely relocate to the dayroom; Maintain a physical distance of at least two arm lengths from the agitated client

Answer

The practical nurse should maintain a physical distance of at least two arm lengths, direct the bystander client to safely relocate, and set clear, concise limits using a neutral tone.
Managing an escalating client requires immediate attention to safety and the use of least-restrictive interventions. Relocating bystanders protects other clients, maintaining physical distance protects the nurse, and setting clear, neutral limits provides structure without provoking further aggression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate environment for safety threats.
The nurse identifies that the escalating client poses a potential physical risk to both the staff and the nearby bystander client.
Milieu safety is the highest priority during a behavioral crisis.
2
Implement least-restrictive, non-pharmacological de-escalation techniques.
The nurse establishes a safe physical distance, protects the bystander by having them leave the area, and provides clear verbal limits without using threats or false reassurance.
De-escalation must follow a hierarchy starting with the least invasive methods to stabilize the situation before considering physical or chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Milieu Safety and Verbal De-escalation
Question 805Question →

A practical nurse is assigned to care for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a partial bowel resection. The client has a scheduled prescription for oral ketorolac for moderate pain. The client's morning laboratory report indicates a hemoglobin level of 8.2 g/dL8.2\text{ g/dL} (a decrease from 10.4 g/dL10.4\text{ g/dL} the previous day). The client's current vital signs are a blood pressure of 102/64 mmHg102/64\text{ mmHg}, a heart rate of 114 beats/min114\text{ beats/min}, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min20\text{ breaths/min}. The client reports abdominal pain and requests the scheduled medication. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

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Answer: Withhold the medication and immediately report the clinical findings to the registered nurse.

Answer

The practical nurse should withhold the ketorolac and immediately report the vital signs and laboratory results to the registered nurse.
Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that carries a significant risk for gastrointestinal bleeding and can inhibit platelet function, especially in postoperative clients. The client's significant drop in hemoglobin, combined with borderline hypotension and tachycardia, strongly indicates potential internal hemorrhage. The practical nurse must prioritize circulation (from the ABCs) over pain management, withhold the medication that could exacerbate bleeding, and immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse for urgent medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's laboratory results and vital signs.
The client has a significant drop in hemoglobin combined with tachycardia and borderline hypotension.
These findings are early indicators of hypovolemic shock, likely due to postoperative hemorrhage.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medication against the clinical picture.
Ketorolac is an NSAID that increases the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated in a client with suspected active hemorrhage.
Administering the medication could exacerbate the bleeding and worsen the client's circulatory status.
3
Determine the appropriate action within the practical nursing scope of practice.
The nurse must withhold the unsafe medication and immediately escalate the critical findings to the registered nurse or provider.
Immediate intervention is required to stabilize the client's circulatory status, which takes priority over routine pain management.

Key Concept

Recognizing signs of postoperative hemorrhage, prioritizing circulation over pain management, and adhering to safe medication administration practices regarding NSAIDs.
Question 806Question →

An older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 48 hours ago requires movement from their bed to a specialized cardiac chair. The client is currently disoriented and receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids. A practical nurse (PN) and an assistive personnel (AP) are collaborating to execute this task using a full-body mechanical lift. Which actions indicate that the PN is correctly managing the equipment, body mechanics, and environmental safety? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Adjust the bed height to the level of the PN's waist before rolling the client to position the canvas sling; Maintain the mechanical lift's base wheels in the unlocked position during the active lifting phase to allow the device to center itself; Expand the legs of the mechanical lift base to their widest setting prior to hoisting the client's weight

Answer

The correct actions involve adjusting the bed to waist height for sling placement, maintaining the lift's base wheels unlocked during the hoist, and expanding the lift legs to their widest setting.
Safe use of a mechanical lift requires maximizing the base of support (expanding the legs) and allowing the machine to distribute weight naturally (leaving wheels unlocked during the lift). Furthermore, raising the bed to waist level prior to moving the patient protects the nurse from ergonomic injuries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's surgical history and current cognitive state.
Identifies the requirement for strict hip precautions and the risks associated with the client's disorientation.
Total hip arthroplasty severely limits safe hip flexion (must remain <90 degrees), and disorientation increases the likelihood of unpredictable patient movements.
2
Apply ergonomic principles during the preparatory phase of the transfer.
The bed is elevated to waist level for rolling the client to place the sling.
Raising the work surface prevents spinal stress and reduces the risk of occupational musculoskeletal injury for the healthcare team.
3
Configure and operate the mechanical lift to ensure maximum stability.
The lift's base legs are fully widened, and the casters are left unlocked while lifting.
A widened base increases the supportive footprint. Unlocked wheels allow the lift mast to auto-center over the shifting weight of the patient, neutralizing tipping forces.
4
Ensure all nursing interventions remain strictly within the legal scope of practice and safety protocols.
The nurse refrains from administering IV push medications and rejects using the sling as a tie-down restraint.
IV push administration exceeds the PN scope of practice, and improvising physical restraints violates patient rights and safety laws.

Key Concept

Integration of mechanical lift safety physics, proper ergonomic positioning, postoperative hip precautions, and legal scope of practice.
Question 807Question →

A client with partial weight-bearing capability needs to be moved from an armchair back to their bed. The nurse decides to use a mechanical sit-to-stand device. Arrange the steps of this procedure in the correct sequence for safe equipment use.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess the client's ability, then position the device, wrap the sling around the client, connect the sling to the lift, and finally instruct the client to hold the grips.
Safe use of a sit-to-stand lift requires a systematic and ergonomic approach. Assessment of the client's physical capability is always the first step. Then, the equipment is brought into the correct position. Following this, the nurse applies the supportive sling to the client's torso. Next, the sling is securely attached to the lift's hooks. Finally, the client is instructed to hold the handles to maintain balance before the machine is activated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's weight-bearing status and cognition.
Client is confirmed to be appropriate for the sit-to-stand device.
Ensures baseline safety and prevents falls, as this specific device requires active client participation.
2
Position the sit-to-stand equipment.
Device is ready and stable in front of the client.
Prepares the environment and equipment for the transfer.
3
Apply the supportive sling.
Client's torso is safely supported.
Provides structural support for the upper body during the lift.
4
Attach the sling to the lift hooks.
Client is physically connected to the lifting mechanism.
Secures the lifting mechanism before any upward movement begins.
5
Instruct the client to hold the hand grips.
Client is properly positioned and ready to be lifted.
Promotes stability, proper body mechanics, and client participation in the transfer.

Key Concept

Safe use of mechanical transfer devices
Question 808Question →

A 68-year-old client is receiving care in a medical-surgical unit for community-acquired pneumonia. Two days after admission, the practical nurse (PN) observes that the client is highly restless, sweating profusely, and has noticeable hand tremors. The client suddenly points at the wall and says, "Look at the spiders crawling everywhere!" Which action should the PN take first?

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Answer: Remain with the client to maintain safety and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).

Answer

The priority action is to remain with the client to maintain safety and immediately notify the registered nurse (RN).
The client is displaying symptoms consistent with acute alcohol withdrawal delirium, an emergency condition that typically peaks 48 to 72 hours after the last drink. The priority is safety. By remaining with the client, the practical nurse prevents potential injury from agitation or a seizure. Simultaneously notifying the RN is crucial because the client will require an advanced assessment and likely urgent pharmacological interventions (such as benzodiazepines) that fall outside the independent scope of the PN.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting restlessness, diaphoresis, hand tremors, and visual hallucinations approximately 48 hours after admission.
These are classic early warning signs of complicated alcohol withdrawal (delirium tremens), a life-threatening medical emergency.
2
Determine the most immediate risk to the client.
The client is at high risk for self-injury, escalating agitation, and seizures.
Visual hallucinations and autonomic hyperactivity impair judgment and require immediate protective measures.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention within the PN scope of practice.
The PN chooses to stay with the client to ensure physical safety and simultaneously calls for the RN.
The PN provides direct observation to prevent injury while escalating the situation to the RN for advanced assessment and medication administration.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Client Safety and RN Collaboration in Alcohol Withdrawal
Question 809Question →

A client recovering from viral encephalitis is exhibiting severe psychomotor agitation and repeatedly pulling at their intravenous (IV) line. Environmental modifications and one-to-one supervision have been ineffective. The healthcare provider has just evaluated the client and determined that physical restraints are necessary. Arrange the following practical nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to safely implement this intervention.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first verify the provider's prescription, explain the procedure to the client and family, apply the restraints with a two-finger gap, secure them to a movable part of the bed frame using a quick-release knot, assess the neurovascular status of the extremities, and finally, ensure the restraints are released one at a time every two hours for basic care.
The application of restraints follows a strict legal and safety protocol. The practical nurse must first ensure a valid provider prescription is in place. Next, communication with the client and family is essential to provide reassurance. During application, correct technique (padding and leaving a two-finger gap) prevents immediate injury. Securing the straps to the movable bed frame with a quick-release knot ensures patient safety during bed adjustments and emergencies. Once applied, frequent neurovascular monitoring is the highest priority, followed by scheduled release every two hours for skin care and range of motion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify the provider's written prescription detailing the clinical justification, type of device, and time limit.
Legal authorization is confirmed.
A physical restraint cannot be applied without a valid, current face-to-face provider order, except in an extreme emergency where the order must be obtained immediately after.
2
Explain the temporary nature and safety purpose of the intervention to the client and their family.
The client and family understand the intervention.
Providing a clear rationale helps reduce anxiety, promotes cooperation, and fulfills ethical obligations.
3
Wrap the padded devices around the wrists, ensuring sufficient space to accommodate two fingers.
The restraints are placed safely without causing constriction.
Leaving a two-finger gap prevents impaired circulation and nerve damage.
4
Secure the attachment straps to the movable section of the bed frame utilizing a quick-release knot.
The restraints are anchored securely but can be released instantly if needed.
Attaching to a movable part of the frame prevents injury if the bed position is adjusted, and a quick-release knot ensures rapid removal during emergencies.
5
Assess the peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and skin temperature of the restrained extremities.
Neurovascular status is monitored.
Frequent neurovascular checks (e.g., every 15 to 30 minutes) are critical to detect and prevent circulatory or neurological impairment.
6
Remove one device at a time at least every two hours to provide hygiene and range-of-motion exercises.
Basic physical needs and skin integrity are maintained.
Periodic removal allows for essential nursing care, skin assessment, and joint mobility while maintaining safety.

Key Concept

The safe and legal application of physical restraints requires a chronological protocol prioritizing legal authorization, proper mechanics, and ongoing assessment.
Question 810Question →

A client is receiving care 72 hours after a right above-the-knee amputation. The client reports a dull ache in the residual limb and asks the practical nurse to place a pillow underneath it for support. Which action should the nurse take?

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Answer: Explain that elevating the limb on a pillow at this stage increases the risk of developing a hip flexion contracture.

Answer

The correct action is to explain that elevating the limb on a pillow at this stage increases the risk of developing a hip flexion contracture.
After the first 24 hours following a lower extremity amputation, the residual limb should not be elevated on a pillow. Elevating the limb or maintaining prolonged flexion at this stage significantly increases the risk of developing a hip flexion contracture, which can severely impair future mobility and prosthetic fitting. The nurse must provide education regarding this risk and utilize alternative comfort measures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the type of surgery and the time elapsed.
The client had a right above-the-knee amputation 72 hours (3 days) ago.
Postoperative protocols for amputation change significantly after the first 24 hours.
2
Determine the physiological risks associated with positioning at this stage.
The primary risk after 24 hours is the development of a hip flexion contracture due to prolonged flexion of the joint.
Contractures can severely limit mobility and complicate or prevent the successful fitting of a prosthesis.
3
Evaluate the client's request against safety guidelines.
Placing a pillow under the limb promotes hip flexion and is strictly contraindicated at 72 hours.
The nurse must prioritize long-term mobility and prevent complications over the requested short-term comfort measure.
4
Select the appropriate nursing intervention.
The nurse should deny the pillow request while providing education on the risk of contractures.
Client education promotes understanding and adherence to necessary positioning restrictions.

Key Concept

Postoperative Positioning for Amputation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 811Question →

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports the morning vital signs for an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty the previous day. The client's heart rate is 114 beats per minute and blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg. The UAP also mentions that the client is newly disoriented to place. Which action should the practical nurse take first?

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Answer: Examine the surgical dressing and the bed linens beneath the client's right hip.

Answer

The correct action is to examine the surgical dressing and the bed linens beneath the client's right hip.
Tachycardia, hypotension, and new-onset confusion in a postoperative client are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock, most commonly caused by hemorrhage in this clinical context. The practical nurse must immediately collect data regarding potential bleeding sources by inspecting the surgical site and the dependent areas (linens underneath) where blood typically pools due to gravity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
Recognize that tachycardia, hypotension, and new-onset confusion indicate compromised tissue perfusion.
Early recognition of shock is essential to prevent irreversible organ damage.
2
Determine the most likely cause of hypovolemia.
Identify hemorrhage as the primary risk factor following a major orthopedic surgery.
Postoperative bleeding is a common and life-threatening complication of hip arthroplasty.
3
Select the priority nursing action based on the identified risk.
Choose to physically examine the surgical dressing and dependent bed linens.
Blood can pool under the client without being visible on the top dressing, necessitating a thorough assessment before escalating to the registered nurse.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Hypovolemic Shock and Hemorrhage
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 812Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is monitoring a client who is receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. The client suddenly reports severe lower back pain and begins to experience chills. In what order should the PN perform the following actions? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the blood transfusion, then maintain the IV line with normal saline, notify the supervising RN, and finally obtain the client's vital signs.
In any suspected blood transfusion reaction, the absolute highest priority is to stop the source of the reaction to prevent further harm. After stopping the blood, the IV site must be maintained with a normal saline infusion using new tubing to keep the vein open for emergency interventions. The RN must then be notified immediately to further assess the client and contact the healthcare provider. Finally, the PN obtains vital signs to establish the client's current status and monitor for impending shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the blood transfusion immediately.
Further infusion of the potentially incompatible blood is halted.
Severe lower back pain and chills are classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction; stopping the source is the absolute first priority to prevent further harm.
2
Maintain the intravenous (IV) line open with normal saline.
Venous access is preserved and kept patent.
An open IV line is critical for administering emergency medications and fluids to manage the severe reaction.
3
Notify the supervising registered nurse (RN).
The RN is informed of the critical situation.
The RN needs to evaluate the client, contact the healthcare provider, and initiate emergency protocols as per facility policy.
4
Obtain the client's vital signs.
Current hemodynamic status is documented.
Vital signs provide essential data regarding the severity of the reaction and help guide further medical interventions.

Key Concept

Prioritization during a suspected blood transfusion reaction
Question 813Question →

Following shift report on a medical-surgical unit, a practical nurse (PN) reviews the data for four assigned clients. Which client's clinical presentation indicates a potential life-threatening complication and requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse (RN)?

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Answer: A client with acute pancreatitis whose heart rate is 112112 beats/min and blood pressure is 98/6498/64 mm Hg.

Answer

The client with acute pancreatitis who has a heart rate of 112 beats/min and blood pressure of 98/64 mm Hg requires immediate escalation.
The client with acute pancreatitis is exhibiting tachycardia and hypotension. These are early, subtle signs of hypovolemic shock caused by massive fluid shifts (third-spacing) into the retroperitoneal cavity. This represents a life-threatening failure of physiological adaptation that requires immediate intravenous fluid resuscitation by the registered nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client with COPD.
The oxygen saturation is 90% on room air.
Identify that a pulse oximetry reading of 88-92% is an expected, stable baseline for a client with chronic respiratory disease.
2
Analyze the client who is 1 day postoperative.
The client has severe pain (8/10).
Recognize that acute postoperative pain is expected and does not represent a life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulation (ABC) emergency.
3
Analyze the client with CKD.
The serum potassium level is 5.2 mEq/L.
Identify that a slightly elevated potassium level is a baseline expectation for a renal failure client awaiting their scheduled dialysis session.
4
Analyze the client with acute pancreatitis.
The client exhibits a heart rate of 112 beats/min and a blood pressure of 98/64 mm Hg.
Determine that these borderline vital signs represent early hypovolemic shock caused by severe fluid shifting (third-spacing) into the retroperitoneum, making this the highest priority.

Key Concept

Prioritization requires distinguishing between expected chronic abnormalities and subtle, acute physiological deterioration such as early hypovolemic shock.
Question 814Question →

An older adult client with moderate dementia is continuously grasping and pulling at their peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which initial intervention should the practical nurse implement to prevent the client from dislodging the device?

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Answer: Cover the IV insertion site and tubing with a tubular stockinette.

Answer

Covering the intravenous site and tubing with a tubular stockinette or long sleeves.
The principle of utilizing the least restrictive intervention dictates that nurses should first attempt to remove visual triggers before resorting to physical restraints. For a client with dementia who is pulling at medical devices, concealing the intravenous line with a stockinette, bandage, or long-sleeved gown effectively reduces the impulse to pick at the device by putting it out of sight, all without restricting the client's freedom of movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety hazard.
The client is at high risk of dislodging an invasive medical device, which could cause injury or bleeding.
Accident and injury prevention requires immediate recognition of behaviors that compromise medical equipment.
2
Evaluate the client's cognitive status.
The client has moderate dementia, meaning verbal instructions or logical reasoning will not alter their behavior.
Interventions must be tailored to the client's cognitive abilities to be effective.
3
Select an intervention based on the principle of the least restrictive environment.
Camouflaging the site with a stockinette is chosen over restraints.
Standards of care dictate that nurses must always implement the least restrictive effective intervention before considering physical or chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Restraint Alternatives and Hazard Prevention
Question 815Question →

A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a right short-leg cast about how to ascend stairs using axillary crutches. In which order should the nurse instruct the client to perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Assume the tripod position, transfer weight to the crutches, step up with the unaffected leg, shift weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bring the crutches and affected leg up.
When ascending stairs with crutches, the client must follow the safety principle of 'up with the good'. The client begins in a stable tripod position and transfers weight to the crutch handles. The unaffected (strong) leg is then placed on the step above. Once the strong leg is firmly planted, the client shifts their weight onto it. Finally, the client uses the strong leg to elevate the body, bringing the crutches and the affected (weak) leg up to the same step. This sequence ensures that the strong leg does the work of lifting the body against gravity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assume the tripod position at the base of the stairs.
The client has a stable, three-point base of support.
Ensures balance before attempting to move.
2
Transfer body weight entirely onto the crutch handles.
The client's legs are freed from bearing weight.
Allows the unaffected leg to be lifted without destabilizing the client.
3
Step up onto the first stair with the unaffected left leg.
The unaffected leg is placed on the higher step.
The strong leg must go first ('up with the good') to lift the rest of the body.
4
Shift body weight from the crutches to the unaffected left leg.
The body weight is now supported by the strong leg.
Provides the upward force needed to lift the affected leg and crutches.
5
Bring the crutches and the affected right leg up to the stair.
The client completes the ascent of one step.
The weak leg and crutches follow the strong leg to maintain safety.

Key Concept

Assistive Device Ambulation: Ascending Stairs
Question 816Question →

An older adult client is recovering on the orthopedic unit on the first postoperative day following a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. When assisting the client with morning hygiene and bed repositioning, which action by the practical nurse is most appropriate?

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Answer: Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them onto their left side

Answer

Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them onto their left side is the most appropriate action.
Following a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, the client is at high risk for hip dislocation if the hip is adducted, internally rotated, or flexed beyond 90 degrees. Using an abduction wedge between the legs prevents adduction and internal rotation, especially when turning the client onto their non-operative (left) side, thereby maintaining proper joint alignment and safety during basic care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and the specific approach used.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach.
Different surgical approaches have distinct postoperative positioning restrictions that dictate basic care.
2
Recall the positioning precautions specific to a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty.
To prevent prosthesis dislocation, the client must avoid hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, avoid adduction (crossing the legs over the midline), and avoid internal rotation.
Basic care and comfort measures must be adapted to adhere strictly to these physical safety limits.
3
Evaluate each nursing action against the identified precautions.
Elevating the bed to 90 degrees and flexing the hip past 90 degrees to wash the foot both violate the flexion precaution. Placing a pillow under the knee poses a circulatory risk (deep vein thrombosis). Using an abduction wedge while turning maintains proper alignment and prevents adduction.
This confirms that using the abduction wedge is the only safe and appropriate action among the choices.

Key Concept

Postoperative positioning and mobility precautions for total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 817Question →

While providing care on a pediatric oncology unit, a practical nurse encounters a parent whose adolescent child recently received a terminal prognosis. The parent is visibly distressed and states, "Last week I felt like I was starting to accept this, but today I am just furious at everyone on the medical team. I must be doing this grieving process wrong." Which response by the practical nurse is the most therapeutic?

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Answer: Grief does not follow a strict, step-by-step timeline; it is completely expected to move back and forth between different emotions.

Answer

The most therapeutic response is to inform the parent that grief does not follow a strict, step-by-step timeline and that moving back and forth between different emotions is completely expected.
The correct response directly addresses the parent's fear of 'doing this wrong' by normalizing their experience. It provides accurate, factual reassurance that the grieving process is not a linear timeline and that oscillating between emotions like acceptance and anger is a completely expected part of anticipatory grief.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and current emotional state.
The parent is experiencing anticipatory grief and is expressing feelings of failure because they have shifted from acceptance back to anger.
Understanding the context of the client's distress is necessary to select a response that addresses their specific concern.
2
Evaluate the clinical concepts regarding the grieving process.
Grief is a dynamic, non-linear process. Individuals frequently oscillate between stages (such as denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance) rather than moving through them sequentially.
Accurate clinical knowledge ensures the nurse provides correct information and normalizes the client's experience.
3
Apply principles of therapeutic communication to the available options.
The response validating the non-linear nature of grief is therapeutic. The other options contain communication blocks such as asking 'why', giving unsolicited advice, or reinforcing misconceptions about grief stages.
Therapeutic communication should validate feelings, provide accurate information, and avoid making the client feel judged or defensive.

Key Concept

Anticipatory Grief and Non-Linear Grief Models
Question 818Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is providing care for an older adult client recently admitted with suspected urosepsis. The client has a documented history of moderate Alzheimer's disease. During the shift, the client becomes acutely agitated, begins shouting, and repeatedly attempts to remove a newly inserted peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) suggests using soft wrist restraints, noting that the client is becoming a danger to themselves. Which initial action must the PN prioritize to ensure client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Conceal the IV site with a loose tubular bandage, evaluate the client for physiological stressors such as hypoxia or a full bladder, and initiate constant observation.

Answer

The priority action is to conceal the IV site with a loose tubular bandage, evaluate for physiological stressors, and initiate constant observation.
The correct answer prioritizes the legal and ethical mandate to exhaust all less restrictive alternatives before applying physical or chemical restraints. Concealing the medical device reduces the visual stimulation that triggers pulling, while assessing for physiological stressors (such as hypoxia or a full bladder) addresses the root cause of acute delirium commonly seen with urosepsis. Constant observation ensures immediate safety without restricting the client's movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the legal and ethical requirements for restraint application.
The nurse identifies that regulatory guidelines strictly mandate the exhaustion and documentation of all less restrictive alternatives before any restraints can be applied.
Restraints are a treatment of last resort, not a first-line intervention for agitation.
2
Differentiate between the client's chronic dementia and acute delirium.
The nurse recognizes that sudden, acute agitation in a client with an infection (urosepsis) strongly indicates delirium caused by a physiological stressor, rather than a normal progression of Alzheimer's disease.
Treating the underlying physiological cause (e.g., hypoxia, urinary retention, pain) often resolves the behavioral crisis without the need for mechanical restrictions.
3
Implement the least restrictive safety measures immediately.
The nurse conceals the medical device to remove the visual trigger, assesses vital signs/physiological needs, and ensures continuous 1:1 observation.
These actions prioritize immediate client safety, protect the medical equipment, and strictly adhere to the legal mandate of injury prevention without utilizing physical or chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Restraint Alternatives and Delirium Management
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 819Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is assisting a client with right-sided weakness to ambulate in the hallway using a gait belt and a straight cane. The client has an unsteady gait. Which actions by the PN represent proper ergonomics and safe use of equipment? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Position oneself slightly behind and on the client's right side while walking.; Ensure the gait belt is applied securely over the client's clothing at the waist.; Instruct the client to hold the straight cane in their left hand.

Answer

The correct actions are to position oneself slightly behind and on the client's right (weak) side, ensure the gait belt is applied securely over the client's clothing, and instruct the client to hold the straight cane in their left (strong) hand.
Proper ergonomics and equipment safety during ambulation require the nurse to stand on the client's affected (right) side and slightly behind to quickly assist if they stumble. A gait belt should be applied securely over clothing to provide a safe grip for the nurse without causing skin trauma. Finally, a cane must always be held on the unaffected (left) side to appropriately distribute weight, mirror the natural swinging of the arms, and provide a stable base of support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the correct placement of the mobility aid.
The cane should be held on the strong side (left) to support the body's natural gait pattern and shift weight off the weak right leg.
Holding the cane on the strong side widens the base of support and maximizes balance.
2
Identify the proper positioning for the nurse assisting with ambulation.
The nurse must stand slightly behind and on the affected (right) side of the client.
If the client begins to fall, they will most likely fall toward their weak side. Being positioned there allows the nurse to safely guide them down or stabilize them.
3
Identify the correct usage of assistive safety equipment.
The gait belt should be placed securely around the waist, over the client's clothing.
This provides the nurse with a safe, ergonomic handle to maintain the client's center of gravity without pulling on their arms or risking skin injury.
4
Eliminate inappropriate or unsafe actions.
Reject options that involve delegating assessment, applying unnecessary physical restraints, or ignoring acute respiratory distress.
Safety requires adhering strictly to the PN scope of practice, utilizing least restrictive environments, and always prioritizing airway and breathing.

Key Concept

Safe Use of Mobility Aids and Body Mechanics
Question 820Question →

A client is recovering on the maternity ward 16 hours after a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The practical nurse is completing a routine assessment. Which of the following documented findings represent expected physiological adaptations that the practical nurse can independently document without immediately notifying the registered nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The lochial flow is dark red and contains two small clots, each measuring approximately 1 cm (0.4 inches) in diameter.; The uterine fundus is palpated as a firm, rounded mass located at the level of the umbilicus.; The client reports moderate abdominal cramping that temporarily intensifies while the newborn is actively breastfeeding.

Answer

The expected physiological findings are: lochial flow with small clots (< 2 cm), a firm and midline uterine fundus at the umbilicus, and moderate abdominal cramping during breastfeeding.
At 16 hours postpartum, expected physiological adaptations include lochia rubra (dark red discharge) with small blood clots, a well-contracted (firm) uterine fundus located near the umbilicus, and moderate afterpains (uterine cramping) that are exacerbated by the release of oxytocin during breastfeeding. These normal findings remain within the practical nurse's scope to document independently without urgent escalation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate lochial flow characteristics.
Dark red lochia with clots smaller than a golf ball (approximately 1 cm) is confirmed as a normal finding at 16 hours postpartum.
The placental site is actively healing, and small clots are expected as long as overall pad saturation does not exceed one pad per hour.
2
Assess uterine fundal position and tone.
A firm, rounded fundus at the level of the umbilicus is identified as the expected normal involution parameter within the first 24 hours.
A firm fundus indicates adequate uterine contraction, which compresses blood vessels and prevents hemorrhage.
3
Analyze reported maternal pain and discomfort.
Cramping during breastfeeding is recognized as an expected normal physiological response.
Breastfeeding triggers the release of endogenous oxytocin, causing the uterus to contract (afterpains) to maintain tone.
4
Identify clinical danger signs requiring RN notification.
Tachycardia (116 bpm), rapid pad saturation (< 1 hour), and severe unrelenting vaginal pressure are identified as complications.
These specific signs indicate potential hypovolemic shock, acute postpartum hemorrhage, and vaginal hematoma respectively, requiring advanced RN assessment.

Key Concept

Normal Postpartum Physiological Adaptations versus Clinical Danger Signs
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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