Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 561Question →

A client with a history of recurrent seizures is admitted to the medical unit. The client has a single patent peripheral intravenous catheter with a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. The healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent infusion of intravenous phenytoin. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous D5W infusion, flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, infuse the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The correct action is to stop the continuous D5W infusion, flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, infuse the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will rapidly crystallize if they mix. Because the client only has one peripheral line, the safest approach is to stop the primary D5W infusion, flush the tubing with a compatible fluid (0.9% sodium chloride) to clear the dextrose, infuse the phenytoin, and then flush again with normal saline before resuming the D5W.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the current continuous intravenous fluid.
The prescribed medication is phenytoin, and the running fluid is 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Identifying the components is essential to check for drug-solution compatibility.
2
Determine the compatibility of phenytoin with D5W.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions and will form a precipitate.
Administering incompatible medications together can cause catheter occlusion and severe patient harm.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention for administering an incompatible medication through a single line.
The nurse must stop the primary infusion and flush the line with a compatible solution (0.9% sodium chloride) before and after administering the phenytoin.
This technique clears the tubing of the incompatible fluid, allowing safe administration without the need for a second intravenous access site.

Key Concept

Phenytoin Intravenous Compatibility and Safe Administration
Question 562Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who had an exploratory laparotomy 3 days ago. While the nurse is in the room, the client sneezes forcefully and reports a sudden "popping" sensation. The nurse inspects the surgical site and observes a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the risk of further complications? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stay with the client and call for help, then position the client to reduce abdominal tension, cover the exposed organs with moist sterile dressings, assess vital signs for shock, and finally prepare for emergency surgery.
Wound evisceration is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate, prioritized nursing interventions to reduce the risk of tissue necrosis and shock. The nurse must first ensure safety by calling for help while staying with the client. Next, the nurse minimizes further damage by reducing intra-abdominal tension through positioning. The exposed tissue is then protected with sterile, moist dressings. Once the immediate anatomical threat is managed, the nurse assesses the systemic response by obtaining vital signs, and finally, completes preparations for definitive surgical repair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stay with the client, call for immediate assistance, and instruct a colleague to notify the surgeon.
Assistance is secured without leaving the client alone.
Evisceration is a surgical emergency. The nurse must remain with the client to prevent further injury and manage the airway and hemodynamics while delegating the notification of the healthcare provider.
2
Place the client in a low Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
Intra-abdominal pressure is decreased.
This specific position relieves tension on the abdominal wall muscles, which reduces the risk of more bowel loops protruding through the open fascia.
3
Cover the protruding bowel with sterile dressings saturated in normal saline.
The exposed bowel is protected from dehydration and infection.
Internal organs will rapidly become necrotic if allowed to dry out. Sterile saline maintains moisture, and sterile technique prevents the introduction of environmental pathogens.
4
Obtain the client's vital signs and monitor for manifestations of shock.
The client's hemodynamic status is evaluated.
The sudden exposure of internal organs and potential fluid shifts can trigger shock. Baseline vital signs are necessary to guide fluid resuscitation and inform the surgeon.
5
Prepare the client for immediate surgical intervention.
The client is readied for definitive treatment.
The only definitive treatment for an evisceration is emergency surgical repair. The nurse prepares the client by ensuring patent intravenous access and maintaining NPO status.

Key Concept

Emergency Management of Wound Evisceration
Question 563Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous regular insulin infusion along with normal saline. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

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Answer: The sudden appearance of flattened T waves and prominent U waves on the cardiac monitor

Answer

The sudden appearance of flattened T waves and prominent U waves on the cardiac monitor.
The correct answer identifies flattened T waves and prominent U waves, which are hallmark electrocardiogram changes indicating severe hypokalemia. Continuous intravenous insulin drives both glucose and potassium into the cells, rapidly depleting serum intravascular potassium levels. Severe hypokalemia can quickly lead to lethal cardiac arrhythmias and requires immediate life-saving intervention, such as alerting the provider and preparing to administer intravenous potassium chloride.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiological effects of continuous intravenous insulin therapy.
Insulin drives both serum glucose and serum potassium into the intracellular space.
Understanding the mechanism of action of the treatment helps anticipate potential iatrogenic complications.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the provided assessment findings.
The ABG shows expected compensation. The vital signs and abdominal pain are expected consequences of DKA. The ECG changes (flattened T wave, prominent U wave) indicate severe hypokalemia.
Differentiating between expected disease manifestations and acute, life-threatening complications is required for safe care.
3
Prioritize interventions based on immediate life threats.
Severe hypokalemia can rapidly progress to lethal cardiac arrhythmias (such as ventricular fibrillation), making it the highest priority for intervention.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and acute survival potential, preventing cardiac arrest supersedes managing expected symptoms.

Key Concept

Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances in Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Question 564Question →

A nurse is preparing to remove a non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) from a client's internal jugular vein. Place the following nursing actions in the correct chronological order to ensure client safety and prevent complications during the procedure.

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Answer

The correct sequence for removing a central venous catheter is to position the client supine, remove the dressing, instruct the client to bear down, withdraw the catheter, apply firm pressure, and finally inspect the catheter tip.
The safe removal of a central venous catheter prioritizes the prevention of an air embolism. The procedure begins by placing the client flat or in a slight Trendelenburg position to increase central venous pressure. After removing the dressing to free the catheter, the nurse instructs the client to bear down (Valsalva maneuver) to elevate intrathoracic pressure. The catheter is withdrawn exactly during this maneuver to ensure the vein remains under positive pressure. Immediate manual pressure is then applied to the site to achieve hemostasis and form an airtight seal over the tract. Finally, the nurse inspects the catheter tip to ensure no fragments were retained in the patient.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the client in a supine or slight Trendelenburg position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
This positioning prevents an air embolism by keeping the venous pressure higher than atmospheric pressure.
2
Remove the transparent dressing and any securement devices.
The catheter is freed from the skin.
The site must be fully prepared before the client is instructed to alter their breathing pattern.
3
Instruct the client to take a deep breath and bear down.
Intrathoracic pressure is temporarily increased.
The Valsalva maneuver ensures positive pressure in the vein, further protecting against air entry.
4
Withdraw the catheter smoothly and continuously.
The catheter is completely removed from the jugular vein.
Removing the line while the client bears down minimizes the time the open tract is exposed to potential air intake.
5
Apply immediate, firm pressure to the insertion site using sterile gauze.
Hemostasis is achieved and the entry tract is sealed.
Firm pressure prevents bleeding and physically blocks air from entering the vein.
6
Inspect the distal tip of the removed catheter.
The physical integrity of the catheter is confirmed.
This verification ensures no pieces of the catheter have broken off into the client's bloodstream.

Key Concept

Safe removal of a central venous catheter requires strict adherence to procedural steps that prevent air embolism, primarily through patient positioning and the utilization of the Valsalva maneuver.
Question 565Question →

A nurse is assessing a client admitted with an acute exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease. The client's baseline blood pressure was 134/78134/78 mm Hg, and the resting heart rate was 8282 beats per minute. Which new assessment finding is the most critical early indicator that the client is developing a life-threatening physiological complication?

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Answer: A blood pressure of 118/92118/92 mm Hg with a resting heart rate of 112112 beats per minute.

Answer

The finding of a blood pressure of 118/92118/92 mm Hg with a resting heart rate of 112112 beats per minute.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, which is a major risk for clients with peptic ulcer disease, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated. This causes peripheral vasoconstriction, which elevates the diastolic blood pressure, leading to a narrowed pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure). This subtle narrowing, combined with tachycardia, is often the very first detectable sign of hemodynamic compromise, occurring well before a significant drop in systolic blood pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline vital signs.
Baseline pulse pressure was 134−78=56134 - 78 = 56 mm Hg. Baseline heart rate was 8282 bpm.
Establishing a baseline is necessary to identify subsequent physiological deterioration.
2
Evaluate the new vital signs for signs of hemodynamic compromise.
New pulse pressure is 118−92=26118 - 92 = 26 mm Hg. The heart rate increased to 112112 bpm.
A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia is a classic hallmark of the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock.
3
Compare the severity of the vital sign changes against the other clinical findings.
The ABG is normal, the coffee-ground emesis is expected and small in volume, and the pain worsened by positioning is a typical localized symptom.
The systemic cardiovascular changes represent an immediate, life-threatening risk that takes absolute priority over localized or expected symptoms.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Hypovolemic Shock
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 566Question →

While assessing a client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation, the nurse notes severe work of breathing with a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute36\text{ breaths/minute}. Initial arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.527.52, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 28 mmHg28\text{ mmHg}, and PaO2PaO_2 of 72 mmHg72\text{ mmHg}. After one hour of continuous bronchodilator therapy, the client appears quieter, the respiratory rate decreases to 14 breaths/minute14\text{ breaths/minute}, and wheezing is no longer audible. A repeat ABG reveals a pH of 7.367.36, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 44 mmHg44\text{ mmHg}, and PaO2PaO_2 of 62 mmHg62\text{ mmHg}. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The correct action directly addresses a life-threatening airway emergency. A client experiencing an asthma attack should initially present with hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis). When the respiratory rate slows, wheezing disappears (silent chest), and the PaCO2 normalizes or elevates, it signifies severe respiratory muscle fatigue. The client is losing the ability to move air and is progressing toward respiratory arrest, requiring immediate intubation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial assessment data.
The initial ABG showed respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.527.52, PaCO2 28 mmHg28\text{ mmHg}), which is an expected compensatory response as the client hyperventilates to overcome airway resistance.
Understanding the baseline helps identify deterioration.
2
Evaluate the reassessment findings and repeat ABG.
The client has become quieter, respiratory rate has dropped to 14 breaths/minute14\text{ breaths/minute}, and wheezing has stopped. The repeat ABG shows a 'normal' pH (7.367.36) and PaCO2 (44 mmHg44\text{ mmHg}), with worsening hypoxemia (PaO2 62 mmHg62\text{ mmHg}).
These findings must be correlated clinically to determine the client's actual physiological state.
3
Synthesize the data to determine the clinical trajectory.
The lack of wheezing combined with rising PaCO2 in an acute asthma attack signifies a 'silent chest'—a life-threatening condition where airflow is so restricted that breath sounds cannot be generated, and the respiratory muscles are too fatigued to maintain ventilation.
Recognizing impending respiratory failure dictates immediate life-saving interventions.
4
Select the priority intervention.
Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
Airway and breathing are the highest priorities; mechanical assistance is required when the client can no longer maintain independent ventilation.

Key Concept

Impending Respiratory Failure in Asthma (Silent Chest)
Question 567Question →

While pushing an intravenous (IV) medication, the nurse observes that the client suddenly develops intense facial flushing and reports a severe, pounding headache along with chest tightness. A rapid assessment reveals a blood pressure of 82/48 mmHg, a heart rate of 118 beats/min with an irregular rhythm, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Stop the medication injection immediately.

Answer

The correct priority action is to stop the medication injection immediately.
The client's sudden onset of facial flushing, severe headache, chest tightness, hypotension, and irregular pulse during an IV push administration are the hallmark signs of speed shock. Speed shock is a systemic reaction that occurs when a medication is introduced too rapidly into the circulation, causing the drug concentration to reach toxic levels instantly. The absolute first priority is to stop the injection to prevent any further medication from entering the client's bloodstream.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's sudden onset of symptoms during the IV push.
The combination of severe facial flushing, pounding headache, chest tightness, hypotension, and irregular pulse directly correlates with the rapid introduction of the medication.
Recognizing the specific clinical presentation differentiates speed shock from other infusion reactions like anaphylaxis or air embolism.
2
Determine the highest priority intervention based on the complication.
The nurse must immediately halt the delivery of the offending agent.
Speed shock occurs when a drug reaches toxic proportions in the blood instantly due to rapid administration. Stopping the injection prevents further toxicity before initiating supportive care.

Key Concept

Parenteral Therapy Safety: Speed Shock Recognition and Management
Question 568Question →

A nurse is planning care for a client who has just returned to the clinical unit following a bedside right-sided thoracentesis for a pleural effusion. Which interventions should the nurse implement to monitor for and reduce the risk of potential complications? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Auscultate breath sounds and monitor oxygen saturation levels closely.; Observe the client for a sudden onset of resting tachycardia and narrowing pulse pressure.; Inspect the puncture site dressing for visible fluid leakage or active hemorrhage.

Answer

The correct interventions are to auscultate breath sounds and monitor oxygen saturation, observe for tachycardia and narrowing pulse pressure, and inspect the puncture site dressing for bleeding.
Following an invasive procedure like a thoracentesis, the client is at an elevated risk for complications including pneumothorax, hypovolemic shock, and bleeding. Auscultating breath sounds and closely monitoring oxygenation helps detect a pneumothorax, which often presents with diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Observing for resting tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure allows for the early identification of shock resulting from internal bleeding or fluid shifts. Finally, inspecting the dressing ensures that external hemostasis is maintained and no excessive pleural fluid is leaking.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary risks associated with a thoracentesis.
Recognize that pneumothorax, internal or external bleeding, and infection are the most significant potential complications.
Understanding potential complications directs the focus of the post-procedure nursing assessment.
2
Evaluate each listed intervention for its safety and effectiveness in risk reduction.
Determine that airway and breathing assessments, hemodynamic monitoring, and site inspection are critical and correct actions.
Early detection of respiratory compromise or hypovolemic shock significantly improves client outcomes.
3
Identify and eliminate unsafe or contraindicated actions from the options.
Exclude supine positioning and the delegation of initial assessments to a UAP.
Supine positioning impairs diaphragmatic excursion, and the RN must establish the initial post-procedure baseline because the client is considered unstable.

Key Concept

Post-procedure monitoring and complication prevention following a thoracentesis.
Question 569Question →

A client with a severe exacerbation of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous loading dose of aminophylline 5 mg/kg5\text{ mg/kg} to be infused over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}. The client weighs 154 lbs154\text{ lbs}. The pharmacy dispenses aminophylline 500 mg500\text{ mg} mixed in 500 mL500\text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the infusion pump?

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Answer: 700

Answer

700
To find the correct infusion rate, first convert the weight to kilograms (154 lbs÷2.2=70 kg154\text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 70\text{ kg}). Next, calculate the dose (70 kg×5 mg/kg=350 mg70\text{ kg} \times 5\text{ mg/kg} = 350\text{ mg}). Since the medication is supplied as 500 mg500\text{ mg} in 500 mL500\text{ mL} (a 1 mg/mL1\text{ mg/mL} concentration), the total volume needed is 350 mL350\text{ mL}. Finally, to find the hourly rate for a 30-minute30\text{-minute} (0.5 hour0.5\text{ hour}) infusion, divide the volume by the time in hours (350 mL÷0.5 hr=700 mL/hr350\text{ mL} \div 0.5\text{ hr} = 700\text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
70 kg70\text{ kg}
Weight-based dosages require the client's weight to be expressed in kilograms (154÷2.2=70154 \div 2.2 = 70).
2
Calculate the total required dose of aminophylline in milligrams.
350 mg350\text{ mg}
Multiply the prescribed dose by the client's weight in kilograms (5 mg/kg×70 kg=350 mg5\text{ mg/kg} \times 70\text{ kg} = 350\text{ mg}).
3
Determine the required fluid volume in milliliters to deliver the calculated dose.
350 mL350\text{ mL}
The supplied concentration is 500 mg500\text{ mg} in 500 mL500\text{ mL}, which simplifies to 1 mg/mL1\text{ mg/mL}. Therefore, a 350 mg350\text{ mg} dose is contained in a volume of 350 mL350\text{ mL}.
4
Calculate the infusion pump rate in milliliters per hour (mL/hr\text{mL/hr}).
700 mL/hr700\text{ mL/hr}
The 350 mL350\text{ mL} volume must be infused over 30 minutes30\text{ minutes}, which is 0.5 hours0.5\text{ hours}. Divide the volume by the time in hours to find the hourly rate (350 mL÷0.5 hours=700 mL/hr350\text{ mL} \div 0.5\text{ hours} = 700\text{ mL/hr}).

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation and infusion pump rate programming.
Question 570Question →

A nurse receives a handoff report for a client who is 48 hours48\text{ hours} post-coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The previous shift reports that the mediastinal chest tube drainage abruptly stopped 2 hours2\text{ hours} ago. Upon entering the room, the client appears highly restless and reports a severe sensation of tightness in the chest. Current vital signs reveal a heart rate of 124 beats/min124\text{ beats/min}, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min24\text{ breaths/min}, and a blood pressure of 96/82 mm Hg96/82\text{ mm Hg}. Auscultation of the chest reveals muffled heart tones.

Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Contact the rapid response team and prepare the client for an emergent echocardiogram and pericardiocentesis.

Answer

The correct action is to contact the rapid response team and prepare the client for an emergent echocardiogram and pericardiocentesis.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension with a narrowing pulse pressure, muffled heart tones, and systemic venous congestion leading to restlessness and chest tightness). The abrupt cessation of chest tube drainage post-coronary artery bypass graft suggests the tube is clotted, causing blood to accumulate in the pericardial space. This is a life-threatening emergency (obstructive shock) that restricts ventricular filling and requires immediate pericardial decompression via pericardiocentesis or surgical re-exploration. The correct action is to activate the rapid response team and prepare for this procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and vital signs.
The client has a markedly narrowing pulse pressure (96/82 mm Hg96/82\text{ mm Hg}), tachycardia (124 beats/min124\text{ beats/min}), muffled heart tones, and sudden cessation of chest tube drainage.
Identifying these classic findings (Beck's triad) is essential to differentiate the complication from general postoperative pain or simple hypovolemia.
2
Formulate a clinical judgment based on the findings.
The findings strongly indicate cardiac tamponade, caused by blood accumulating in the pericardial sac after the chest tube clotted.
Cardiac tamponade restricts ventricular filling, severely compromising cardiac output and creating a life-threatening obstructive shock state.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Immediate medical intervention to drain the accumulated fluid (pericardiocentesis or surgical re-exploration) is required.
Nursing actions must prioritize activating the emergency response team (ABCs) because cardiac tamponade is rapidly fatal without mechanical decompression.

Key Concept

Cardiac Tamponade Recognition and Emergency Management
Question 571Question →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. The client has a single peripheral IV catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV piggyback levofloxacin. Upon checking a drug reference guide, the nurse determines that levofloxacin is physically incompatible with heparin. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the levofloxacin.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to insert a second peripheral IV catheter to administer the levofloxacin.
Establishing a new intravenous line is the only action that prioritizes patient safety by maintaining the continuous therapeutic level of heparin while simultaneously ensuring the timely administration of the antibiotic. Because the two medications are chemically incompatible, they cannot share a line, and because heparin has a very short half-life, it cannot be safely paused.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary pharmacological concern with the current infusions.
Heparin is a critical, high-alert medication with a very short half-life (60 to 90 minutes) that requires continuous infusion to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation for a pulmonary embolism.
Understanding the pharmacokinetics of the primary infusion is essential before deciding whether it can be safely paused.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the two prescribed intravenous medications.
The scenario explicitly states that levofloxacin is physically incompatible with heparin.
Incompatible medications cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing or bag, as they may precipitate or inactivate each other.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the incompatible secondary medication.
Because heparin cannot be safely paused for the 30 to 60 minutes required for an antibiotic piggyback, and the medications cannot share the same line, a separate IV access must be established.
This guarantees that the client receives the necessary antibiotic therapy without compromising the critical anticoagulation treatment.

Key Concept

Continuous infusions of critical medications with short half-lives (like heparin or vasoactive drips) should not be interrupted to administer incompatible secondary infusions. A separate IV access must be established.
Question 572Question →

A 28-year-old client is receiving mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit following a severe traumatic brain injury. An external ventricular drain is in place, and the monitor displays a sustained intracranial pressure (ICP) of 24 mm Hg. The nurse evaluates the client's morning arterial blood gas (ABG) results, which reveal a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg, PaO2 of 92 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 25 mEq/L (25 mmol/L). Which of the following interventions is the highest priority for the nurse to implement to reduce the risk of further neurological damage?

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Answer: Request a prescription to increase the mechanical ventilator respiratory rate.

Answer

Request a prescription to increase the mechanical ventilator respiratory rate.
The correct answer addresses the root cause of the worsening physiological state. The client has an elevated intracranial pressure (24 mm Hg) and respiratory acidosis (PaCO2 54 mm Hg). Carbon dioxide is a potent vasodilator of cerebral blood vessels. When vessels dilate, more blood enters the rigid cranial vault, causing intracranial pressure to spike and risking fatal brain herniation. By increasing the mechanical ventilator's respiratory rate, the client will blow off the excess carbon dioxide. As PaCO2 normalizes, the cerebral blood vessels will constrict, reducing cerebral blood volume and safely lowering the intracranial pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's arterial blood gas results.
The results show uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3-).
Identifying the acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine the underlying physiological stressor affecting the brain.
2
Correlate the laboratory findings with the client's neurological status.
The elevated PaCO2 (hypercapnia) is directly causing cerebral vasodilation.
Carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator. Wide vessels increase cerebral blood volume, which exacerbates the already dangerously elevated intracranial pressure of 24 mm Hg (normal is 5 to 15 mm Hg).
3
Determine the most effective intervention to reduce physiological risk.
The nurse must act to decrease the PaCO2 level back to a normal range (35 to 45 mm Hg).
Increasing the respiratory rate on the mechanical ventilator will blow off the excess carbon dioxide, leading to cerebral vasoconstriction and a subsequent decrease in intracranial pressure.

Key Concept

Hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2) causes cerebral vasodilation, which significantly increases intracranial pressure. Managing ventilation to maintain normocapnia is a critical risk reduction strategy in traumatic brain injury.
Question 573Question →

An adult individual recovering from a severe gastrointestinal resection is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse observes that the current bag of TPN has less than 20 mL20\text{ mL} remaining. The hospital pharmacy informs the unit that the next prepared nutritional solution will be delayed by approximately two hours. Based on the client's current therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action to take next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate an infusion of 10%10\% dextrose in water at the exact same flow rate as the current total parenteral nutrition.

Answer

The most appropriate nursing action is to initiate an infusion of 10%10\% dextrose in water at the exact same flow rate as the current total parenteral nutrition.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high concentration of glucose, which causes the pancreas to release a steady, elevated amount of insulin. If the TPN infusion is abruptly stopped or significantly delayed, the high levels of circulating insulin will rapidly lower the client's blood glucose, leading to severe rebound hypoglycemia. To prevent this dangerous complication, standard nursing protocol dictates immediately hanging an intravenous solution with a similar glucose concentration, typically 10%10\% dextrose in water (D10W), and infusing it at the exact same flow rate until the next bag of TPN is available.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risk associated with an abrupt cessation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
The high glucose content in TPN stimulates a steady, elevated release of endogenous insulin. Stopping the infusion suddenly creates a high risk for profound rebound hypoglycemia.
Anticipating complications based on pharmacokinetics and physiology is a critical component of safe parenteral therapy management.
2
Determine the necessary nursing intervention to prevent this specific complication during a delay.
The client requires a substitute intravenous fluid that provides a comparable concentration of glucose to match the circulating insulin levels.
Maintaining a steady supply of glucose prevents the blood sugar from dropping precipitously while the body gradually adjusts its insulin output.
3
Select the most appropriate intravenous solution from standard protocols.
10%10\% dextrose in water (D10W) administered at the same rate as the TPN is the standard emergency substitute.
D10W contains a sufficient glucose concentration to mimic many standard TPN formulations and is readily accessible in emergency or delay situations.

Key Concept

Prevention of rebound hypoglycemia during abrupt cessation of total parenteral nutrition.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 574Question →

A nurse is managing the care of a postoperative client who is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump programming and medication parameters with a second registered nurse.; Ensure that naloxone and emergency resuscitation equipment are readily available at the client's bedside.; Assess the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and level of sedation at established regular intervals.

Answer

The correct actions are to verify the PCA pump settings with a second registered nurse, ensure naloxone is readily available at the bedside, and regularly assess the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and sedation level.
Safe management of a PCA pump requires a multifaceted approach to prevent medication errors and respiratory depression. This includes performing an independent double-check of pump parameters with a second nurse, continuously assessing the client's respiratory and neurological status, and maintaining immediate access to the reversal agent naloxone. These actions directly uphold physiological integrity and patient safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary risks associated with intravenous opioid administration via a PCA pump.
The main risks are oversedation and life-threatening respiratory depression.
Understanding the risks directs the nurse toward the necessary safety and monitoring interventions.
2
Evaluate the administrative safety protocols for PCA pumps.
The pump settings and medication dosage must be verified by two registered nurses.
Independent double-checks catch programming errors before the medication reaches the client.
3
Determine the necessary bedside emergency equipment.
An opioid antagonist (naloxone) and resuscitation equipment must be immediately accessible.
Rapid reversal of opioid toxicity is critical if respiratory depression occurs.
4
Analyze the delegation and operational safety rules of PCA therapy.
Assessments cannot be delegated to UAPs, and family members cannot push the PCA button (PCA by proxy).
Assessments require nursing judgment, and PCA safety relies on the client being awake enough to self-administer the dose.
5
Evaluate IV compatibility principles for parenteral therapies.
A drug reference must always be consulted before administering medications together.
Visual inspection cannot detect all forms of chemical incompatibility, which could cause harm or drug inactivation.

Key Concept

Safe administration, monitoring, and complication management of parenteral opioid analgesics via Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA).
Question 575Question →

A hospitalized individual with community-acquired pneumonia is currently receiving supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min2\text{ L/min}. During hourly rounds, the nursing staff observes that the individual has become highly restless, confused, and is utilizing accessory muscles to breathe.

ParameterCurrent Value
Heart rate122 bpm122\text{ bpm}
Respiratory rate32 breaths/min32\text{ breaths/min}
Blood pressure148/88 mm Hg148/88\text{ mm Hg}
Oxygen saturation84%84\%
ABG ComponentResultReference Range
pH\text{pH}7.267.267.35−7.457.35 - 7.45
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_266 mm Hg66\text{ mm Hg}35−45 mm Hg35 - 45\text{ mm Hg}
PaO2\text{PaO}_254 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}80−100 mm Hg80 - 100\text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-24 mEq/L24\text{ mEq/L}22−26 mEq/L22 - 26\text{ mEq/L}

Which action represents the priority intervention for this individual?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare the room for emergent airway management.

Answer

The priority intervention is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for emergent airway management (intubation).
The correct answer involves recognizing that the individual is in acute respiratory failure. The ABG reveals severe uncompensated respiratory acidosis with significant hypoxemia. Combined with clinical signs of increased work of breathing and altered mental status, this indicates impending respiratory collapse. The priority is to secure the airway and provide mechanical ventilation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas values and vital signs.
The ABG indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH<7.35\text{pH} < 7.35, elevated PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2) with severe hypoxemia (PaO2<60 mm Hg\text{PaO}_2 < 60\text{ mm Hg}).
Understanding the physiological state is crucial for identifying acute decompensation and prioritizing interventions.
2
Correlate laboratory findings with the physical assessment data.
The client's severe restlessness, confusion, and use of accessory muscles are direct physiological responses to severe oxygen deprivation and carbon dioxide retention.
Restlessness and confusion are hallmark early neurological signs of profound hypoxia.
3
Determine the most appropriate and definitive nursing intervention.
The client is in acute respiratory failure and requires immediate positive pressure ventilation or intubation.
Conservative measures (like increasing a nasal cannula) are no longer sufficient, and delaying advanced airway interventions could lead to respiratory arrest.

Key Concept

Acute Respiratory Failure and ABG Interpretation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 576Question →

A nurse is planning care for a client who returned to the surgical unit 2 hours ago following a lumbar laminectomy. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of postoperative complications? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the client's spine in proper alignment by logrolling with assistance when turning.; Inspect the surgical dressing and the bedsheets directly underneath the client for clear drainage.; Perform bilateral neurological assessments of the lower extremities every 2 to 4 hours.

Answer

The appropriate interventions are maintaining spinal alignment by logrolling, inspecting the dressing and bedsheets for drainage, and performing frequent lower extremity neurological assessments.
The correct interventions focus on protecting the spinal surgical site, detecting early signs of neurological compromise, and identifying potential bleeding or cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Logrolling maintains spinal alignment, inspecting the dressing and bedsheets helps identify dependent pooling of blood or CSF, and frequent lower extremity neurological checks are vital for catching early signs of nerve compression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure and postoperative risks.
The client had a lumbar laminectomy, which involves the spine. Primary risks include spinal instability, nerve compression, hemorrhage, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
Understanding the specific surgical risks dictates the necessary nursing interventions for risk reduction.
2
Evaluate the positioning and mobility options.
Logrolling is identified as safe and necessary. High Fowler's positioning and trapeze bar use are identified as contraindicated due to promoting spinal flexion and twisting.
Maintaining proper spinal alignment is critical to prevent injury to the surgical site.
3
Evaluate the assessment and delegation options.
Frequent neurological checks and dependent dressing inspections are identified as correct. Delegating the initial ambulation to a UAP is identified as an unsafe delegation.
The RN must retain tasks requiring clinical judgment, such as initial postoperative assessments and mobility trials.

Key Concept

Postoperative Risk Reduction for Spinal Surgery
Question 577Question →

A nurse is caring for an adult client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for symptomatic anemia. Twenty minutes after the transfusion is initiated, the client reports sudden lower back pain and feeling unusually cold. The nurse notes the client is restless with a blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority. (Place the highest priority action first.)

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Answer

The correct order of interventions is to first stop the transfusion, then initiate normal saline with new tubing, assess the client's vital signs, notify the provider and blood bank, and finally send the blood product to the blood bank.
In the event of a suspected acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (indicated by lower back pain, chills, and hypotension), the absolute first priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further exposure to the offending antigen. The next step is to maintain patent IV access with normal saline using completely new tubing; using the old tubing would infuse more of the reactive blood. Once the source is stopped and access is secured, the nurse performs a rapid clinical assessment. This assessment data is then communicated to the healthcare provider to guide emergency pharmacological interventions. Finally, after the client is stabilized and acute actions are completed, the remaining blood product and tubing are sent to the blood bank for investigation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction and immediately stop the transfusion.
Further entry of incompatible blood into the client's circulation is halted.
Stopping the source of the harm is always the most critical first step to minimize the severity of the reaction and prevent further physiological deterioration.
2
Maintain intravenous access with new tubing and 0.9% sodium chloride.
A patent intravenous line is secured without infusing the remaining blood.
The client is hypotensive and will likely require emergency intravenous medications and fluid resuscitation. New tubing prevents pushing the remaining reactive blood into the client.
3
Perform a rapid clinical assessment of vital signs and respiratory status.
Current hemodynamic and respiratory data are obtained.
Accurate clinical data is required to determine the severity of the reaction and to provide a complete report to the healthcare provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The provider is informed of the reaction and assessment data.
The provider must prescribe emergency interventions (e.g., vasopressors, antihistamines), and the blood bank must initiate their adverse reaction protocol.
5
Return the blood product, tags, and tubing to the blood bank.
The physical evidence of the transfusion is sent for laboratory analysis.
The blood bank must analyze the remaining product and equipment to confirm the type and underlying cause of the adverse reaction.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 578Question →

A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with infective endocarditis. The client's vital signs include a temperature of 102.4°F (39.1°C), heart rate of 112 bpm, and blood pressure of 108/64 mmHg. The healthcare provider prescribes intermittent intravenous (IV) infusions of penicillin G and gentamicin. The client currently has a single 20-gauge peripheral IV line established. Which action by the nurse represents the safest administration technique for these medications?

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Answer: Administer the penicillin G, flush the IV line thoroughly with 0.9% sodium chloride, and then infuse the gentamicin.

Answer

The nurse should administer the medications sequentially, flushing the IV line thoroughly with 0.9% sodium chloride between the penicillin G and gentamicin infusions.
The correct action is to administer the antibiotics sequentially and flush the IV line between them. Penicillins and aminoglycosides (like gentamicin) act synergistically in the body to treat severe infections such as endocarditis. However, they are chemically incompatible in vitro (outside the body). If mixed in the same IV bag or tubing, the penicillin will directly inactivate the aminoglycoside. Flushing the line completely with normal saline between the infusions ensures that the medications do not mix, allowing for safe and effective delivery of both drugs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the classification and specific compatibility of the prescribed medications.
The nurse recognizes that penicillin G (a penicillin) and gentamicin (an aminoglycoside) are chemically incompatible in vitro.
Penicillins can physically inactivate aminoglycosides if they come into direct contact in IV tubing or a solution bag.
2
Determine the safest administration strategy given the client's current IV access.
The client has a single peripheral IV line. Since both infusions are prescribed intermittently (rather than as continuous life-sustaining drips), they can be administered one after the other.
Sequential administration avoids the need for an unnecessary second IV stick while ensuring timely antibiotic delivery.
3
Apply the standard nursing procedure for administering incompatible medications through a single line.
The nurse infuses the first medication, flushes the line completely with a neutral, compatible solution (like normal saline), and then infuses the second medication.
Flushing clears the tubing of the first drug, preventing in-vitro mixing and ensuring both medications retain their therapeutic efficacy when they enter the bloodstream.

Key Concept

Parenteral therapy compatibility and safe sequential administration of incompatible antibiotics.
Question 579Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) push medication through a client's non-valved central venous catheter (CVC). Arrange the following steps in the correct order of execution. All steps must be used.

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Answer

The correct sequence for administering an IV push medication through a non-valved central venous catheter is: Scrub the connector, aspirate and flush with normal saline, administer the medication, flush with normal saline again using a push-pause technique, and finally instill the heparin flush.
The SASH sequence (Saline, Administer, Saline, Heparin) is the standard evidence-based practice for administering medications through a non-valved central venous catheter. Asepsis must be established first by scrubbing the hub. An initial saline flush with aspiration confirms placement. After medication administration, a second saline flush clears the drug. Finally, a heparin flush maintains patency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Scrub the needleless connector with an antimicrobial swab and allow it to dry completely.
The entry port is disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the bloodstream, minimizing the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI).
2
Attach a syringe of normal saline, aspirate for blood return, and flush the catheter.
Placement and patency are verified.
Aspiration ensures the catheter tip is appropriately situated in the vascular space, while the initial flush ensures there is no resistance or occlusion.
3
Administer the prescribed intravenous medication over the recommended duration.
The medication is delivered safely.
Administering at the correct rate prevents adverse reactions and toxicity.
4
Flush the catheter with normal saline using a push-pause technique.
The medication is cleared from the line.
Ensures the entire dose reaches the vascular system and clears the line to prevent incompatibility with subsequent infusions. The push-pause method creates turbulence to clean the catheter walls.
5
Instill the prescribed heparin flush solution into the catheter lumen.
The catheter is locked with heparin.
Maintains catheter patency in non-valved central lines by preventing blood coagulation inside the lumen between uses.

Key Concept

The SASH (Saline, Administer, Saline, Heparin) method ensures safe medication administration and maintains patency in non-valved central venous catheters.
Question 580Question →

An emergency department nurse evaluates a client presenting with a three-day history of profound watery diarrhea and poor oral fluid intake. The client exhibits marked lethargy and dry mucous membranes. Initial assessment reveals a heart rate of 116 beats/min116\text{ beats/min}, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min28\text{ breaths/min}, and a blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg94/60\text{ mm Hg}. Arterial blood gas analysis demonstrates a pH of 7.297.29, a PaCO2PaCO_2 of 32 mm Hg32\text{ mm Hg}, and an HCO3−HCO_3^- of 15 mEq/L15\text{ mEq/L}. Which action represents the highest priority for this client?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish intravenous access and commence a prescribed crystalloid fluid challenge

Answer

Establish intravenous access and commence a prescribed crystalloid fluid challenge
The correct action directly addresses the most immediate threat to the client's life: hypovolemic shock. The clinical presentation of lethargy, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension indicates poor tissue perfusion. Administering an intravenous crystalloid fluid challenge will rapidly expand the intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and reverse the tissue hypoxia that is exacerbating the metabolic acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client has tachycardia (116 beats/min116\text{ beats/min}), tachypnea (28 breaths/min28\text{ breaths/min}), borderline low blood pressure (94/60 mm Hg94/60\text{ mm Hg}), and lethargy.
Identifying abnormal parameters establishes that the client is experiencing severe volume depletion and early hypovolemic shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.297.29 (acidosis), PaCO2PaCO_2 is 32 mm Hg32\text{ mm Hg} (partial respiratory compensation), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is 15 mEq/L15\text{ mEq/L} (primary metabolic acidosis).
Severe diarrhea causes a direct loss of bicarbonate, and subsequent poor tissue perfusion adds lactic acid, resulting in significant metabolic acidosis.
3
Prioritize nursing interventions based on ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Circulatory collapse is the most immediate life-threatening issue. Intravenous fluid replacement takes precedence.
Restoring intravascular volume treats the root cause of the shock state and helps correct the metabolic acidosis by improving tissue perfusion.

Key Concept

Hypovolemic Shock and Metabolic Acidosis Management
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