Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 601Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 12 hours ago. During the assessment, the nurse notes the client is increasingly restless and confused. Vital parameters are: heart rate 118 beats per minute, blood pressure 92/60 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute. A point-of-care arterial blood sample reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 56 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 24 mEq/L. Which initial action should the nurse take to minimize the risk of further clinical deterioration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the rapid response team.

Answer

Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the rapid response team.
The client is exhibiting early signs of shock and respiratory failure (tachycardia, hypotension, restlessness, confusion), which are critical complications following major orthopedic surgery like a total hip arthroplasty. The arterial blood gas confirms uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2). Applying supplemental oxygen addresses the immediate physiological deficit, while activating the rapid response team brings critical care resources to manage the impending systemic collapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client is tachycardic, hypotensive, tachypneic, restless, and confused.
These are early clinical indicators of shock, hypoxia, or a complication such as a pulmonary embolism or hemorrhage, which require immediate life-saving intervention.
2
Interpret the point-of-care arterial blood gas values.
The pH is 7.28 (acidotic), PaCO2 is 56 mm Hg (elevated), and HCO3- is 24 mEq/L (normal).
This confirms uncompensated respiratory acidosis, meaning the client is retaining carbon dioxide and failing to ventilate adequately.
3
Select the intervention that best mitigates the acute risk without causing procedural harm.
Providing supplemental oxygen and activating the rapid response team is the safest and most effective initial action.
It supports the failing respiratory system while mobilizing the necessary advanced care providers to treat the underlying cause of shock.

Key Concept

Early recognition of shock and uncompensated respiratory acidosis in post-operative orthopedic clients.
Question 602Question →

An emergency department nurse is managing the care of a client who presents with suspected septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Initial vital signs include a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg, heart rate of 112 beats/min, respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, and an oral temperature of 39.1 °C (102.4 °F). A peripheral intravenous (IV) line is currently infusing 0.9% sodium chloride. After reviewing the newly prescribed parenteral therapies, which of the following actions indicate safe pharmacological practice? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate the prescribed secondary intravenous infusion of ceftriaxone through the existing 0.9% sodium chloride line.; Prepare to titrate a prescribed continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine if the client's mean arterial pressure remains below 65 mmHg after fluid resuscitation.; Assess the client's peripheral pulses and urine output frequently after initiating the prescribed continuous norepinephrine infusion.

Answer

The correct actions are to initiate the ceftriaxone through the compatible normal saline line, prepare to titrate norepinephrine for persistent hypotension, and closely assess peripheral pulses and urine output during the vasopressor infusion.
In the management of severe sepsis, early administration of intravenous antibiotics is a critical priority; ceftriaxone is physically compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and can be safely administered through this existing line. If the client's hypotension does not resolve with fluid resuscitation, a vasopressor like norepinephrine is indicated to maintain a mean arterial pressure greater than 65 mmHg. Because norepinephrine causes profound vasoconstriction, the nurse must closely monitor markers of end-organ perfusion, such as urine output and peripheral pulses, to ensure tissue viability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting signs of severe sepsis and septic shock, indicated by significant hypotension, tachycardia, and fever.
Identifying the client's physiological state determines the priority and appropriateness of nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety and priority of the proposed parenteral therapies.
Antibiotics (ceftriaxone) are a top priority and are compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride. Norepinephrine is indicated for fluid-refractory hypotension and requires careful monitoring of tissue perfusion.
Safe pharmacological administration requires verifying compatibility, correct indications, and understanding necessary monitoring parameters.
3
Identify contraindicated and unsafe actions.
Delaying antibiotics, using historical weights for critical weight-based drips, and mixing incompatible drugs (levofloxacin and heparin) are identified as unsafe practices.
These actions directly compromise patient safety and violate medication administration standards.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral therapies in severe sepsis requires immediate prioritization of antibiotics, strict verification of IV compatibility, use of accurate current weights for vasoactive infusions, and continuous monitoring of end-organ perfusion.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 603Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T3 spinal cord injury who suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache. The client presents with facial erythema, diaphoresis above the level of the lesion, and a blood pressure of 215/115 mmHg. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct priority sequence is: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position, then loosen restrictive clothing, followed by assessing the urinary catheter, and finally administering the antihypertensive medication.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by uncontrolled hypertension in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The initial action is always to elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees (high-Fowler's) to immediately decrease blood pressure through orthostasis. Next, constrictive clothing should be loosened to remove surface stimuli. The nurse then systematically assesses for and eliminates the noxious stimulus, starting with the most common cause: bladder distension or catheter obstruction. Finally, if conservative measures fail to lower the blood pressure, prescribed antihypertensives are administered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
The client is sitting upright, utilizing gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension.
Extreme hypertension places the client at immediate risk for a cerebral hemorrhage. Sitting the client up is the fastest way to lower blood pressure before gathering equipment or conducting further assessments.
2
Loosen any restrictive clothing or tight devices.
Potential cutaneous triggers, such as a tight belt or restrictive blanket, are removed.
Cutaneous stimulation can trigger or exacerbate the sympathetic nervous system response. This is a rapid intervention performed immediately after positioning.
3
Assess the indwelling urinary catheter tubing for kinks or obstruction.
The nurse checks for the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
A distended bladder is the leading cause of this condition. Identifying and eliminating the noxious stimulus is the primary definitive treatment to stop the sympathetic surge.
4
Administer the prescribed PRN rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacological management is initiated to control blood pressure.
If removing the noxious stimuli (such as clothing or bladder distension) does not quickly resolve the crisis, or if the cause cannot be immediately found, antihypertensive medications are required to protect the client.

Key Concept

Autonomic Dysreflexia Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 604Question →

An emergency department nurse is evaluating a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who was brought in with pronounced weakness, altered mental status, and a two-day history of a gastrointestinal viral infection. The client's initial arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.22, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 13 mEq/L. Based on these physiological parameters and the suspected underlying condition, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Deep, rapid, and unlabored respiratory pattern; Tachycardia accompanied by weak, thready peripheral pulses; Decreased skin turgor and parched mucous membranes

Answer

The expected assessment findings are a deep, rapid, and unlabored respiratory pattern; tachycardia accompanied by weak, thready peripheral pulses; and decreased skin turgor with parched mucous membranes.
The client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), evidenced by the severe metabolic acidosis on the ABG analysis. The body physiologically adapts to metabolic acidosis by increasing the rate and depth of respirations (Kussmaul respirations) to expel excess carbon dioxide. Furthermore, DKA causes severe osmotic diuresis, leading to profound dehydration and impending hypovolemic shock, which manifest as poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and weak peripheral pulses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pH is 7.22 (acidemia), HCO3 is 13 mEq/L (metabolic acidosis), and PaCO2 is 28 mm Hg (partial respiratory compensation).
Accurate ABG interpretation is essential to determine the primary acid-base imbalance and the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Correlate the ABG results and clinical history with a specific pathophysiological state.
The combination of type 1 diabetes, a precipitating infection, and severe metabolic acidosis indicates the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
Identifying the underlying condition allows the nurse to anticipate systemic physiological adaptations and potential complications.
3
Identify expected assessment findings based on the pathophysiology of DKA.
The nurse should expect Kussmaul respirations (to compensate for acidosis) and signs of profound dehydration and early hypovolemic shock (due to osmotic diuresis).
Clinical manifestations are direct results of the body's attempts to manage severe acidosis and profound fluid volume deficit.
4
Evaluate each option against the expected physiological findings.
Select the options describing Kussmaul respirations, tachycardia with weak pulses, and poor skin turgor. Reject options describing alkalosis (tetany) or fluid overload (jugular venous distention).
Distinguishing between expected signs and distractors representing opposing physiological states ensures correct clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Physiological adaptation and compensatory mechanisms in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) and Metabolic Acidosis
Question 605Question →

During the management of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin is running via a dedicated peripheral catheter. A new prescription for an intermittent intravenous antibiotic must be initiated promptly. The drug reference manual indicates that this specific antibiotic is physically incompatible with regular insulin. Which intervention ensures safe parenteral administration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a second peripheral venous access site to administer the antibiotic.

Answer

The correct action is to initiate a second peripheral venous access site to administer the antibiotic independently.
When two intravenous medications are physically incompatible, they absolutely cannot be mixed in the same line due to the risk of precipitate formation, which can cause catheter occlusion or life-threatening emboli. Because the client is receiving a continuous regular insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis, pausing the infusion is clinically contraindicated as it would rapidly worsen the client's ketoacidosis. Therefore, the only safe and effective pharmacological action is to establish a second peripheral intravenous line.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the pharmacological properties of the prescribed medications.
The client requires continuous insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis and a prompt antibiotic for infection, but the two medications are physically incompatible in the same line.
Identifying physical incompatibility is the first critical step in preventing medication errors and potentially fatal adverse reactions.
2
Determine the clinical feasibility of interrupting the primary continuous infusion.
Regular insulin given for diabetic ketoacidosis has a very short half-life; pausing it can cause severe rebound hyperglycemia and worsening metabolic acidosis.
Continuous high-alert medications for life-threatening, unstable conditions should not be interrupted to accommodate intermittent therapies.
3
Select the safest administration route that adheres to parenteral therapy guidelines.
A new, independent peripheral intravenous site must be established.
Separate venous access ensures both medications are delivered safely and on schedule without the risk of line precipitation or interruption of critical endocrine therapy.

Key Concept

Safe Administration of Incompatible Intravenous Medications
Question 606Question →

A client is receiving treatment in the emergency department for a severe asthma exacerbation. The client's initial presentation included marked restlessness, a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, and an arterial blood gas (ABG) revealing a pH of 7.49 and a PaCO₂ of 27 mm Hg. After two hours of therapy, the nurse observes that the client has become profoundly lethargic and the respiratory rate has decreased to 14 breaths/min. A follow-up ABG shows a pH of 7.28 and a PaCO₂ of 62 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare the team and equipment for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare the team and equipment for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
During a severe asthma exacerbation, clients initially hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. If the asthma is not resolved, respiratory muscles become exhausted. This fatigue causes the respiratory rate to drop, leading to CO₂ retention (respiratory acidosis) and subsequent altered mental status (lethargy). This physiological collapse indicates impending respiratory failure, making preparation for endotracheal intubation the immediate life-saving priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial clinical presentation.
The client was initially hyperventilating (RR 34) with respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.49, low PaCO₂).
This is a typical early physiological adaptation to hypoxemia during an asthma attack.
2
Evaluate the clinical changes and the follow-up ABG.
The client is now lethargic with a 'normal' RR (14), but the ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.28, high PaCO₂).
A falling respiratory rate and rising PaCO₂ in a severe asthma exacerbation signal respiratory muscle fatigue and loss of compensatory mechanisms.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client is experiencing impending respiratory failure.
Immediate mechanical ventilation is required to restore gas exchange and prevent cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

In severe asthma, a transition from respiratory alkalosis to respiratory acidosis accompanied by lethargy and a normalizing respiratory rate indicates impending respiratory failure requiring immediate intubation.
Question 607Question →

A nurse is preparing to draw a diagnostic blood specimen from a client's central venous catheter (CVC) using the syringe method. Arrange the following actions in the correct procedural sequence. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to disinfect the hub, flush the line to check patency, withdraw a waste sample, draw the actual specimen, and finally flush the line to clear residual blood.
When drawing blood from a central venous catheter, maintaining sterility and ensuring an uncontaminated sample are paramount. Scrubbing the hub is the first step to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections. Flushing the line confirms patency. The critical step of withdrawing a waste sample ensures that the subsequent diagnostic sample is not diluted by the normal saline flush or residual medications. After obtaining the specimen, a larger volume flush is required to completely clear the lumen of blood, preventing fibrin buildup and occlusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Scrub the needleless connector of the catheter with an appropriate antiseptic swab.
The entry point is disinfected.
This prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the client's bloodstream and reduces the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI).
2
Flush the catheter lumen with 10 mL of preservative-free 0.9% sodium chloride.
Catheter patency is confirmed.
Flushing ensures the line is open and clears previously infused fluids that could mix with the blood.
3
Withdraw and discard a 5 mL waste sample of blood from the catheter lumen.
The flush solution is removed from the line.
Discarding the initial blood prevents dilution and contamination of the diagnostic specimen by the saline.
4
Attach a new sterile syringe and withdraw the required volume of blood for the specimen.
The diagnostic sample is obtained.
This sample will accurately reflect the client's physiological laboratory values without interference from flush solutions.
5
Flush the catheter vigorously with 10 to 20 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride using a pulsatile method.
Residual blood is cleared from the line.
A final flush prevents blood from pooling and clotting in the catheter, maintaining its long-term patency.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter Blood Specimen Collection Procedure
Question 608Question →

A client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client suddenly reports severe lower abdominal cramping, and the nurse observes that the outflow drainage has significantly decreased. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence to manage this complication.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess the tubing for kinks, then stop the irrigation fluid, manually irrigate the catheter to clear clots, administer antispasmodic medication, and finally reassess the client's response.
When managing a client with decreased CBI outflow and severe cramping, the nurse must follow a sequence prioritizing bladder safety. First, a non-invasive assessment of the tubing checks for easily fixable kinks. If the tubing is patent, the inflow must be stopped immediately to prevent further distension. Next, manual irrigation clears the likely cause, which is typically blood clots. Once the obstruction is cleared, pharmacological management of spasms is appropriate, followed by final evaluation of the interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the catheter tubing for kinks or compression.
Rules out simple mechanical causes for the outflow obstruction.
Non-invasive assessment is the safest and most immediate first step when equipment appears to malfunction.
2
Stop the continuous bladder irrigation.
Prevents additional fluid from entering the bladder.
Decreased outflow with continued inflow rapidly leads to bladder overdistension and potential rupture.
3
Manually irrigate with sterile normal saline.
Dislodges any blood clots blocking the catheter.
Clots are the most common cause of internal obstruction following a TURP; manual irrigation directly clears the pathway.
4
Administer an antispasmodic medication.
Relieves bladder spasms.
Treats the underlying irritation and cramping once the physical blockage has been resolved.
5
Reassess pain and drainage characteristics.
Confirms the complication has been resolved.
Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process to ensure client safety and treatment efficacy.

Key Concept

Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) Complication Management
Question 609Question →

A client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure requires hemodynamic support. The prescribed treatment plan includes dobutamine to be administered at 7.5 mcg/kg/min7.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client's current weight is 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 500 mg500 \text{ mg} of dobutamine mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water5\% \text{ dextrose in water} (D5WD_5W). What is the required infusion pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 20.3

Answer

20.3
To find the correct pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, the nurse must determine the total micrograms needed per hour (7.5 mcg×90 kg×60 minutes=40,500 mcg/hr7.5 \text{ mcg} \times 90 \text{ kg} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 40,500 \text{ mcg/hr}) and divide it by the concentration of the available IV fluid (500,000 mcg÷250 mL=2,000 mcg/mL500,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 2,000 \text{ mcg/mL}). This calculation yields 20.25 mL/hr20.25 \text{ mL/hr}. Rounding to the nearest tenth provides the final correct rate of 20.3 mL/hr20.3 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lbs) to kilograms (kg).
90 kg90 \text{ kg}
Medication dosing is prescribed based on weight in kilograms, so 198÷2.2=90198 \div 2.2 = 90.
2
Calculate the required dose per minute.
675 mcg/min675 \text{ mcg/min}
Multiply the prescribed dose (7.5 mcg/kg/min7.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}) by the client's weight (90 kg90 \text{ kg}).
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
40,500 mcg/hr40,500 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, so the total hourly medication requirement must be determined by multiplying the minute dose by 60 minutes60 \text{ minutes}.
4
Convert the total available medication from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (mcg).
500,000 mcg500,000 \text{ mcg}
Units must match the prescribed dose unit (micrograms) for accurate calculation.
5
Calculate the concentration of the IV solution.
2,000 mcg/mL2,000 \text{ mcg/mL}
Divide the total micrograms (500,000 mcg500,000 \text{ mcg}) by the total volume (250 mL250 \text{ mL}).
6
Determine the required infusion rate.
20.25 mL/hr20.25 \text{ mL/hr}
Divide the hourly dose (40,500 mcg/hr40,500 \text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (2,000 mcg/mL2,000 \text{ mcg/mL}).
7
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
20.320.3
Adhere to the specific rounding instructions provided in the question.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous IV infusion calculation
Question 610Question →

A nurse evaluates a client four hours after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which assessment findings indicate a developing physiological complication that requires immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound heard during inspiration; Spasmodic contractions of the hand and fingers when a blood pressure cuff is inflated; The client reports a sensation of tightness and increasing pressure at the surgical site

Answer

The assessment findings requiring immediate intervention are a harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, spasmodic contractions of the hand with blood pressure cuff inflation, and a reported sensation of increasing tightness at the surgical site.
Following a subtotal thyroidectomy, the most critical risks include airway obstruction (indicated by stridor or a high-pitched respiratory sound), hemorrhage or hematoma formation (indicated by reports of increasing neck pressure or tightness), and inadvertent removal or damage to the parathyroid glands causing acute hypocalcemia (indicated by Trousseau's sign, which is hand spasms when a blood pressure cuff is inflated). All three of these findings represent acute, life-threatening complications that require immediate emergency intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its specific anatomical risks.
A subtotal thyroidectomy involves surgery on the neck, placing the airway, laryngeal nerves, and parathyroid glands at high risk for injury.
Identifying procedure-specific risks is essential for distinguishing expected postoperative recovery from life-threatening complications.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against known postoperative complications.
Stridor indicates airway obstruction, Trousseau's sign indicates acute hypocalcemia, and neck pressure indicates a potential hematoma.
Early recognition of these specific cues allows for immediate, life-saving interventions.
3
Differentiate critical complications from normal postoperative baseline data.
Normal arterial blood gases, stable vital signs, and minimal serosanguineous drainage are expected findings that do not require emergency intervention.
Prioritization requires eliminating expected or stable data to focus on immediate threats to physiological integrity.

Key Concept

Postoperative complications of thyroid surgery (airway obstruction, hematoma, and hypocalcemia) require immediate recognition and intervention.
Question 611Question →

A client admitted with an active upper gastrointestinal bleed is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of pantoprazole. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV ciprofloxacin for a concurrent urinary tract infection. The client has a single peripheral IV catheter. The nurse consults the facility's drug compatibility reference and notes that pantoprazole and ciprofloxacin are physically incompatible. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the ciprofloxacin.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the ciprofloxacin.
When a client is receiving a continuous critical infusion (such as pantoprazole for an active GI bleed) and requires a secondary medication that is physically incompatible, the nurse must insert a second IV catheter. Pantoprazole continuous infusions are used to maintain a gastric pH above 6.0, which stabilizes platelet aggregates and prevents rebleeding. Pausing this infusion for an hour to administer ciprofloxacin would place the client at high risk for hemorrhage. Mixing the incompatible medications will cause precipitation. Therefore, a new IV line is the only safe solution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical problem and the prescribed treatments.
The client has an active GI bleed receiving continuous pantoprazole and needs IV ciprofloxacin for an infection.
Understanding the criticality of the continuous infusion guides intervention priorities.
2
Analyze the compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Pantoprazole and ciprofloxacin are physically incompatible.
Incompatible medications cannot be mixed in the same IV tubing as they can form precipitates, which may cause an embolism or occlude the catheter.
3
Evaluate alternative administration methods.
Pausing the pantoprazole is unsafe because maintaining a high gastric pH is critical to stabilize clots in an active GI bleed. Y-site administration is contraindicated due to incompatibility.
The safety and efficacy of the critical continuous infusion must be maintained.
4
Determine the safest nursing action.
Establishing a second IV access allows both medications to infuse safely and concurrently.
Provides a dedicated line for the incompatible antibiotic while preserving the critical continuous infusion.

Key Concept

Management of incompatible intravenous medications when continuous critical infusions are prescribed.
Question 612Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) push medication through a client's dedicated peripheral IV line, which currently has a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) running. Which of the following actions must the nurse take to ensure safe medication administration? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the compatibility of the IV push medication with the continuous D5W infusion prior to administration.; Scrub the needleless connector port closest to the client with an appropriate antiseptic before attaching the medication syringe.; Time the administration of the medication strictly according to the manufacturer's recommended rate using a timekeeping device.

Answer

The nurse must verify the compatibility of the medication with the D5W infusion, scrub the injection port closest to the client with an antiseptic before use, and strictly time the administration rate.
Safe administration of an IV push medication requires verifying compatibility with the primary continuous fluid to avoid precipitation. It also requires rigorous infection control by scrubbing the hub, and strict adherence to administration rates to avoid speed shock or toxicity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the IV setup and the prescribed medication.
The nurse identifies the primary continuous infusion is D5W and an IV push medication is due.
Understanding the current setup is necessary to plan for safe parenteral administration.
2
Verify compatibility and calculate the exact dosage.
The nurse confirms the medication is compatible with D5W and calculates the precise volume without rounding to the nearest whole number.
Incompatibility can cause harmful precipitates, and inappropriate rounding of IV medications can lead to dangerous dosage errors.
3
Assess the site, prepare the port, and administer the medication.
The nurse independently assesses the IV site for infiltration, scrubs the hub, and pushes the medication over the recommended time.
Site assessment cannot be delegated to a UAP, scrubbing prevents bloodstream infections, and correct timing prevents speed shock.

Key Concept

Safe Intravenous (IV) Medication Administration Principles
Question 613Question →

During a routine assessment on a medical-surgical unit, a nurse evaluates a client who is 15 minutes into a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The client suddenly reports severe flank pain, chills, and an impending sense of doom. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) and a blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg. The nurse immediately stops the transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disconnect the blood tubing directly at the intravenous catheter hub and attach new tubing primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The correct action is to disconnect the blood tubing directly at the intravenous catheter hub and attach a completely new IV tubing set primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
When an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs, the immediate priority after stopping the transfusion is to maintain intravenous access and provide hemodynamic support without infusing any more of the reactive blood product. Disconnecting the blood tubing directly at the hub and attaching completely new tubing primed with normal saline ensures that the residual blood in the old tubing is removed and not inadvertently pushed into the client's circulatory system.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the clinical manifestations of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
The client's flank pain, chills, hypotension, and feeling of impending doom indicate a severe incompatibility reaction.
Early recognition dictates the immediate cessation of the transfusion, which the nurse has already completed.
2
Determine the safest method to maintain intravenous access for emergency interventions.
The existing blood tubing must be disconnected directly at the intravenous catheter hub.
Leaving the old tubing connected and flushing it would force the residual reactive blood contained within the line directly into the client's circulatory system, exacerbating the life-threatening reaction.
3
Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride.
A new tubing set primed with normal saline is attached to the hub, and the infusion is started.
Normal saline is compatible with blood products, helps maintain venous access for subsequent emergency medications, and provides fluid volume to support the client's dropping blood pressure.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 614Question →

Following a closed reduction and synthetic cast application for a fractured right tibia, a 35-year-old client is admitted to the orthopedic unit. Several hours into the shift, the client complains of a deep, relentless ache in the right calf that remains severe despite receiving a recent dose of intravenous hydromorphone. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 110 beats/min, blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg, and sluggish capillary refill in the right toes. Which intervention must the nurse execute promptly to prevent a limb-threatening complication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the affected extremity at the level of the client's heart and alert the provider.

Answer

Maintain the affected extremity at the level of the client's heart and alert the provider.
The clinical findings of deep, unrelenting pain that is out of proportion to the injury and unrelieved by opioids, combined with delayed capillary refill, strongly suggest developing compartment syndrome. This is a surgical emergency where elevated pressure within the myofascial compartment compromises circulation. The correct risk-reduction action is to immediately notify the healthcare provider and maintain the extremity at heart level. Elevating the limb above the heart is strictly contraindicated as it further reduces arterial perfusion to the compromised tissues.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The client exhibits unrelenting pain out of proportion to the injury, unrelieved by opioids, along with sluggish capillary refill.
These are classic early indicators of acute compartment syndrome, a physiological emergency.
2
Determine the physiological risk.
Increased pressure within the fascial compartment is compromising local tissue perfusion.
If uncorrected, this increased pressure leads to irreversible ischemia, nerve damage, and tissue necrosis.
3
Select the priority intervention.
The nurse must keep the limb at heart level and notify the surgeon immediately for potential fasciotomy.
Elevating the limb above the heart decreases arterial pressure and exacerbates ischemia, making heart-level positioning critical.

Key Concept

Compartment Syndrome Assessment and Positioning
Question 615Question →

During bedside handoff on a progressive care unit, a client who sustained an anterior myocardial infarction the previous day becomes extremely restless. The assessment reveals pale, diaphoretic skin and a weak radial pulse of 118 beats per minute. The current blood pressure measurement is 84/60 mm Hg, and the client's urine output has been 15 mL over the last hour. Which action is the priority for this client?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Activate the rapid response team and anticipate the administration of inotropic medications.

Answer

The priority action is to activate the rapid response team and anticipate the administration of inotropic medications.
The correct answer addresses a severe, life-threatening complication. The client is exhibiting classic signs of cardiogenic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, altered mental status, and poor peripheral perfusion) resulting from significant left ventricular damage post-anterior myocardial infarction. Activating the rapid response team immediately brings critical care resources to the bedside. Furthermore, inotropes are typically required to improve myocardial contractility and restore adequate tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical findings presented in the scenario.
The client has a history of an anterior myocardial infarction and now presents with extreme restlessness, pale/diaphoretic skin, tachycardia (118 bpm), hypotension (84/60 mm Hg), and oliguria (15 mL/hr).
Identifying the cluster of symptoms is required to determine the underlying physiological complication.
2
Synthesize the findings to identify the specific complication.
The symptoms indicate impaired tissue perfusion and pump failure, specifically cardiogenic shock, which is a known complication of anterior myocardial infarctions.
Recognizing the transition from stable to decompensated status directs the urgency of the intervention.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately activate the rapid response team to bring critical care resources to the bedside and prepare for interventions that support cardiac output, such as inotropes.
In a state of acute circulatory collapse, immediate collaborative resuscitation is prioritized over independent diagnostic data gathering or contraindicated interventions.

Key Concept

Cardiogenic Shock Recognition and Prioritization
Question 616Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous fluids via a central venous catheter. The nurse notices that the IV tubing has accidentally disconnected from the catheter hub. The client suddenly reports severe shortness of breath and exhibits cyanosis, tachycardia, and a loud, churning murmur over the precordium. Suspecting an air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed, from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first clamp the central venous catheter, then place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position, followed by administering high-flow oxygen, activating the rapid response team, and finally monitoring and documenting the client's status.
In the event of an air embolism, prioritization follows the principle of stopping the cause, managing the immediate anatomical threat, supporting physiology, and then escalating care. Clamping the line directly stops the air entry. Left lateral Trendelenburg positioning anatomically traps the air, preventing a fatal pulmonary blockage. Oxygen supports the resulting hypoxia and helps dissolve the embolus. Only after these immediate bedside interventions should the nurse step away from direct care to call for the rapid response team, followed by ongoing monitoring.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Stops further air from entering the venous system.
Negative intrathoracic pressure can draw a lethal amount of air into an open central line within seconds, making this the most critical initial action.
2
Place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air in the apex of the right atrium and ventricle.
This specific position (Durant's maneuver) uses gravity to prevent the air bubble from advancing into the pulmonary artery, where it would cause a complete right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Treats hypoxia and reduces the size of the air embolus.
Breathing 100% oxygen increases the diffusion gradient for nitrogen to leave the bubble, accelerating its resorption while providing maximal oxygenation.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Summons emergency medical assistance.
The client requires immediate medical evaluation and potential advanced interventions, such as aspiration of the air from the right ventricle.
5
Monitor vital signs and document the event.
Provides ongoing assessment of hemodynamic stability.
Continuous monitoring evaluates the effectiveness of the interventions and ensures a detailed clinical record for the healthcare team.

Key Concept

Management of a Central Line-Associated Air Embolism
Question 617Question →

A client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis is prescribed a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin. The client weighs 209 lbs209 \text{ lbs}. The prescribed protocol dictates an initial infusion rate of 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The pharmacy supplies a premixed IV bag containing 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} of heparin in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.45%0.45\% sodium chloride. At what rate in mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump? Record your answer to one decimal place.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 17.1

Answer

17.1
To determine the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (209 lbs÷2.2=95 kg209 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 95 \text{ kg}). Next, calculate the hourly dose by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (95 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1710 units/hr95 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1710 \text{ units/hr}). Finally, divide the hourly dose by the concentration of the IV bag (25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}) to find the rate in mL/hr (1710 units/hr÷100 units/mL=17.1 mL/hr1710 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 17.1 \text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms.
95 kg95 \text{ kg}
The heparin dose is prescribed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the required hourly dose of heparin.
1710 units/hr1710 \text{ units/hr}
Multiply the client's weight in kg by the prescribed dosage rate of 18 units/kg/hr18 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
3
Determine the concentration of the available heparin solution.
100 units/mL100 \text{ units/mL}
Divide the total units in the bag (25,000 units25,000 \text{ units}) by the total volume (250 mL250 \text{ mL}) to find the units per mL.
4
Calculate the volumetric IV pump infusion rate.
17.1 mL/hr17.1 \text{ mL/hr}
Divide the required hourly dose (1710 units/hr1710 \text{ units/hr}) by the solution concentration (100 units/mL100 \text{ units/mL}) to determine the required mL per hour.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation and infusion pump programming.
Question 618Question →

A client hospitalized with acute heart failure exacerbation and severe pulmonary congestion receives a stat prescription for 80 mg of intravenous furosemide. The pharmacy provides the medication in vials with a concentration of 10 mg/mL. To prevent a known irreversible sensory complication associated with this therapy, which administration technique should be utilized?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer the 8 mL dose continuously over a minimum of 4 minutes.

Answer

The safest technique is to administer the 8 mL dose continuously over a minimum of 4 minutes.
High doses of furosemide administered intravenously carry a significant risk of ototoxicity, which can cause permanent hearing loss. To mitigate this risk, standard pharmacological safety guidelines require the medication to be given at a rate no faster than 20 mg per minute. For an 80 mg dose, this requires a minimum administration time of 4 minutes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the total dose and volume of the prescribed medication.
The dose is 80 mg. At a concentration of 10 mg/mL, the total volume to administer is 8 mL.
Accurate dose and volume calculation is a mandatory first step before determining the administration rate.
2
Determine the maximum safe intravenous administration rate for the medication.
High-dose furosemide should be administered at a maximum rate of 20 mg per minute.
Rapid administration of high-ceiling loop diuretics is directly linked to transient or permanent ototoxicity (hearing loss).
3
Calculate the minimum time required to safely push the medication.
Dividing the 80 mg dose by the maximum rate of 20 mg/minute yields a minimum safe administration time of 4 minutes.
This ensures the medication is delivered slowly enough to prevent acoustic nerve damage while still achieving therapeutic diuresis.

Key Concept

Intravenous furosemide must be administered slowly (not exceeding 20 mg/min for high doses) to prevent ototoxicity, and principles of safe parenteral therapy dictate verifying compatibility and prioritizing acute interventions.
Question 619Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a partial bowel resection 12 hours ago. The client's baseline vital signs were temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), heart rate 78 beats/min, respiratory rate 14 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. Which of the following new assessment findings should the nurse identify as the earliest indicator that the client is developing hypovolemic shock?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A heart rate of 116 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/90 mm Hg

Answer

The earliest indicator of developing hypovolemic shock is a heart rate of 116 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/90 mm Hg.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body's sympathetic nervous system initiates a compensatory response to decreased intravascular volume. This results in an increased heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output and peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain systemic vascular resistance. This vasoconstriction disproportionately elevates the diastolic blood pressure, creating a narrowed pulse pressure (typically a difference of less than 30 mm Hg between systolic and diastolic values).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline vital signs and current postoperative timeline.
The client is 12 hours post-abdominal surgery with normal baseline hemodynamics, placing them at risk for active internal hemorrhage.
Establishing the baseline and surgical context identifies the primary physiological risks.
2
Differentiate between early (compensatory) and late (progressive) signs of hypovolemic shock.
Early shock presents with tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure due to vasoconstriction. Late shock presents with profound hypotension and poor perfusion (mottled skin).
The question specifically asks for the earliest indicator of decompensation.
3
Evaluate the remaining distractors against expected postoperative findings.
Mild respiratory alkalosis and hypoactive bowel sounds are expected physiological responses to surgical pain and abdominal manipulation.
Expected findings do not indicate an acute physiological deterioration requiring emergency intervention.

Key Concept

Early Physiological Adaptation to Volume Loss (Compensatory Shock)
Question 620Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days postoperative following an abdominal laparotomy. The client coughs forcefully and suddenly states, "I feel like something just popped open." The nurse inspects the surgical site and observes a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct priority sequence for managing a surgical evisceration is: stay with the client and call for assistance, position the client in a low Fowler's position with bent knees, cover the exposed bowel with sterile moist dressings, assess vital signs, and then notify the surgeon.
Wound evisceration is a physiological emergency requiring swift, sequential action. The nurse must first ensure safety by staying with the client and calling for help. Next, reducing mechanical tension on the abdomen by placing the client in a low Fowler's position with bent knees prevents further organ protrusion. Protecting the exposed tissue with sterile, saline-soaked dressings is the next critical priority to prevent tissue necrosis and infection. Once the site is secured and protected, assessing vital signs is necessary to evaluate for shock. Finally, the provider is notified with all assessment data to arrange for immediate surgical repair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure continuous presence and secure assistance.
Help is summoned without leaving the client unattended.
Evisceration is a critical emergency. Leaving the client risks further injury and severe anxiety. Help is needed to gather supplies and contact the provider.
2
Adjust the client's position to a low Fowler's position with knees flexed.
Abdominal wall tension is minimized.
This specific position relaxes the rectus abdominis muscles, which prevents additional abdominal contents from protruding through the opened incision.
3
Protect the exposed viscera with sterile, saline-moistened dressings.
The bowel is protected from the external environment and drying.
Exposed internal organs can quickly become necrotic if they dry out, and they are highly susceptible to severe infection. Sterile normal saline maintains tissue viability.
4
Obtain vital signs and assess perfusion.
The client's physiological stability is determined.
Evisceration can cause rapid fluid shifts and significant pain, leading to hypovolemic shock. Baseline vital signs are needed before calling the provider.
5
Communicate the critical situation to the surgical team.
Definitive surgical treatment is initiated.
Nursing interventions stabilize the client, but surgical repair in the operating room is the only definitive treatment for an evisceration.

Key Concept

Management of a postoperative abdominal evisceration requires immediate, sequential actions to reduce abdominal tension, protect the exposed viscera from necrosis and infection, and prepare the client for emergency surgery.
PreviousPage 31 / 98Next
Physiological Integrity Practice Questions — NCLEX-RN — Page 31 | Examkin