Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 681Question →

A healthcare provider prescribes haloperidol 3 mg3 \text{ mg} intramuscularly (IM) for a client experiencing severe agitation. The pharmacy supplies a vial labeled haloperidol 5 mg/mL5 \text{ mg/mL}. How many mL\text{mL} should the nurse administer? (Record the answer using one decimal place.)

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Answer: 0.6

Answer

0.6
To determine the correct volume to administer, the nurse must divide the desired dose (3 mg3 \text{ mg}) by the available dose (5 mg5 \text{ mg}), and then multiply by the available volume (1 mL1 \text{ mL}). The calculation is (3÷5)×1=0.6 mL(3 \div 5) \times 1 = 0.6 \text{ mL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the desired dose.
The desired dose is 3 mg3 \text{ mg}.
This is the specific amount of medication the provider prescribed.
2
Identify the available concentration.
The available concentration is 5 mg5 \text{ mg} per 1 mL1 \text{ mL}.
This is the strength of the medication supplied by the pharmacy.
3
Calculate the volume to administer.
3 mg5 mg×1 mL=0.6 mL\frac{3 \text{ mg}}{5 \text{ mg}} \times 1 \text{ mL} = 0.6 \text{ mL}.
Using dimensional analysis or the standard 'Desired over Have' formula determines the correct administration volume.

Key Concept

Medication dosage calculation for parenteral administration
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 682Question →

A 65-year-old client is transferred to the telemetry unit immediately following a diagnostic cardiac catheterization accessed via the right femoral artery. The client is awake, reports feeling hungry, and has stable vital signs. The right pedal pulse is palpable. To reduce the risk of severe hemorrhage or hematoma at the puncture site, which positioning directive must the nurse enforce?

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Answer: Maintain strict bedrest with the right leg kept completely straight and immobile.

Answer

Maintain strict bedrest with the right leg kept completely straight and immobile.
Following a femoral artery access procedure, maintaining the affected extremity completely straight and keeping the client on strict bedrest is critical. This specific position prevents tension and flexion at the groin, allowing a stable clot to form and preventing life-threatening arterial bleeding or hematoma development at the high-pressure puncture site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure and access site from the clinical vignette.
The client underwent a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
Understanding the access site is crucial for anticipating specific post-procedure complications.
2
Determine the highest priority risk associated with this specific procedure.
The greatest immediate risk is arterial hemorrhage or hematoma formation at the high-pressure femoral puncture site.
Arterial access sites require meticulous care to ensure a stable clot forms and prevents life-threatening blood loss.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly mitigates this risk.
Keeping the affected leg straight and maintaining strict bedrest prevents flexion at the groin, protecting the puncture site.
Any bending at the hip increases intra-abdominal pressure and mechanical stress on the artery, which can easily dislodge the clot.

Key Concept

Post-procedure positioning to prevent arterial bleeding
Question 683Question →

A nurse is planning a bed bath and a linen change for a client who is 12 hours post-operative following a craniotomy and is currently being managed for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to ensure client safety and comfort?

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Answer: Enlist the assistance of another staff member to logroll the client while maintaining the head and neck in a neutral, midline alignment.

Answer

The nurse should enlist assistance to logroll the client, ensuring the head and neck are kept in a neutral, midline position to promote venous drainage.
The correct action is to logroll the client with assistance, keeping the head and neck in a neutral, midline position. In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a craniotomy, preventing neck flexion or rotation is critical. A neutral neck alignment ensures that the jugular veins remain uncompressed, allowing for continuous and optimal venous drainage from the brain. This prevents dangerous elevations in ICP that can occur during turning and hygiene care.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical status and risks.
The client is post-craniotomy and at risk for further increases in intracranial pressure (ICP).
Identifying the primary risk dictates the constraints on physical movement and positioning during hygiene care.
2
Evaluate the impact of physical positioning on ICP.
Actions that obstruct jugular venous return (neck flexion/rotation) or increase intrathoracic/intra-abdominal pressure (hip flexion, flat position) must be avoided.
Cerebral blood volume and ICP are directly influenced by the efficiency of venous drainage from the head.
3
Select the hygiene intervention that aligns with neurological safety parameters.
Logrolling with assistance and keeping the head neutral is the only option that safely accommodates the need for hygiene while preventing ICP spikes.
This method prevents twisting of the cervical spine, thereby protecting the jugular veins from compression.

Key Concept

Basic care and positioning for clients with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
Question 684Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client experiencing severe constipation. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: assist the client into the left lateral Sims position, lubricate the tubing tip, insert the tubing 3 to 4 inches, elevate the container 12 to 18 inches, and finally open the roller clamp.
Administering a cleansing enema requires a systematic and safe procedural flow. The nurse must first place the client in the left lateral Sims position to align the anatomy with gravity for optimal fluid flow. Next, the tubing tip is lubricated to prevent mucosal trauma. The tube is then gently inserted 3 to 4 inches into the rectum. After secure insertion, the container is elevated 12 to 18 inches to establish safe hydrostatic pressure, preventing rapid infusion and cramping. Finally, the clamp is opened to initiate the slow flow of the solution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client appropriately.
The client is in the left lateral Sims position.
This specific position exposes the anus and uses gravity to help the fluid flow naturally into the descending and sigmoid colon.
2
Prepare the equipment for insertion.
The enema tube tip is lubricated.
Lubrication is necessary immediately prior to insertion to prevent tissue injury and ensure a smooth entry.
3
Insert the tube into the rectum.
The tube is inserted 3 to 4 inches.
This depth passes the internal and external anal sphincters safely. Inserting it further could damage the intestinal wall.
4
Set the appropriate hydrostatic pressure.
The enema bag is elevated 12 to 18 inches above the anus.
Holding the bag too high causes the fluid to infuse too rapidly, which can trigger severe cramping and premature expulsion of the fluid.
5
Begin the infusion.
The roller clamp is opened.
Once all safety measures (position, insertion depth, and pressure head) are established, the fluid can be safely administered.

Key Concept

Safe administration of a large-volume cleansing enema (Hygiene and Elimination)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 685Question →

A nurse is assessing the risk profiles of several clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following clients are at greatest risk for developing respiratory acidosis? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: A client who received a large dose of intravenous hydromorphone.; A client with a high cervical spinal cord injury affecting diaphragmatic function.

Answer

The clients at greatest risk for respiratory acidosis are the one who received intravenous hydromorphone and the one with a high cervical spinal cord injury.
Respiratory acidosis develops when there is compromised alveolar ventilation (hypoventilation), leading to the accumulation and retention of carbon dioxide in the blood. Central nervous system depressants like hydromorphone reduce the respiratory drive. High cervical spinal cord injuries impair the neural control of the diaphragm, leading to inadequate lung expansion and poor gas exchange. Both of these mechanisms lead to elevated carbon dioxide levels and respiratory acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the physiological mechanism that causes respiratory acidosis.
Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, which leads to the retention and accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
Understanding the underlying etiology is essential to identify which clinical conditions place clients at risk.
2
Evaluate each client's condition to determine if it causes hypoventilation.
Hydromorphone (an opioid) suppresses the respiratory center in the brain, and a high cervical spinal injury impairs the neural control of the diaphragm. Both conditions cause hypoventilation.
Conditions that impair the respiratory drive or mechanics of breathing directly lead to respiratory acidosis.
3
Identify conditions that cause alternative acid-base imbalances to eliminate them as options.
A panic attack causes hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis), and severe diarrhea causes bicarbonate loss (metabolic acidosis).
Recognizing the causes of other imbalances ensures the correct options are selected.

Key Concept

Etiology of Respiratory Acidosis
Question 686Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department experiencing a severe panic attack. The client is acutely tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute and reports numbness and tingling in the fingers. Based on these clinical findings, which acid-base imbalance should the nurse suspect?

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Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis
The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. When a client experiences a panic attack and hyperventilates, they exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2). Because CO2 acts as an acid in the body, its rapid removal causes the blood pH to increase, resulting in an alkalotic state of respiratory origin. The reported numbness and tingling in the fingers are classic signs of the neuromuscular irritability that accompanies alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological change occurring in the client.
The client is hyperventilating (respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute).
Tachypnea during a panic attack directly alters gas exchange in the lungs.
2
Determine the effect of hyperventilation on arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) levels.
Excessive carbon dioxide is exhaled, lowering the PaCO2 level in the blood (hypocapnia).
Carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the blood; rapid and deep breathing blows off this CO2, reducing overall acidity.
3
Correlate the decreased PaCO2 with the resulting acid-base imbalance.
A primary deficit in carbon dioxide causes the blood pH to rise, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
Because the imbalance originates from altered breathing patterns, it is classified as a respiratory condition.

Key Concept

Respiratory Alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 687Question →

A nurse is establishing a plan for basic care and comfort for a client who returned to the surgical unit 4 hours ago following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The client has nasal packing in place and is restricted to breathing through the mouth. Which interventions should the nurse include in the client's care plan? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administer oral hygiene utilizing a soft foam swab and warm saline rinses.; Apply a continuous layer of water-soluble moisturizer to the client's lips to alleviate dryness.; Maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30-degree angle.

Answer

The correct interventions are administering oral hygiene with a soft swab and saline, applying water-soluble moisturizer to the lips, and maintaining the head of the bed elevated at a 30-degree angle.
Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client must breathe through the mouth, causing significant dryness. Comfort is maintained by applying water-soluble lip moisturizer and performing oral care with warm saline and soft swabs, as a traditional toothbrush could easily tear the delicate surgical incision located near the upper gum line. Furthermore, maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle is essential to decrease intracranial pressure, reduce swelling, and prevent cerebrospinal fluid leaks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure and current condition.
The client had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, has a delicate suture line in the upper gum or nasal cavity, and is breathing exclusively through the mouth due to nasal packing.
Understanding the surgical approach identifies specific anatomical risks, such as a cerebrospinal fluid leak and suture disruption, alongside immediate comfort needs like a dry mouth.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and comfort measures.
Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees is necessary to decrease intracranial pressure. Flat positioning is harmful. Moisturizing lips and using soft swabs for oral care promote comfort without damaging the surgical site.
Proper positioning and specialized oral hygiene prevent severe complications while addressing basic comfort requirements.
3
Review the delegation and safety interventions.
Assessing for a halo sign is a clinical judgment that the registered nurse must perform. Preemptive restraints are inappropriate and violate the principle of using the least restrictive measures first.
Ensuring safe delegation and the appropriate use of safety devices are core nursing responsibilities.

Key Concept

Postoperative basic care following transsphenoidal surgery requires meticulous oral hygiene modifications, continuous head elevation, and careful clinical monitoring for complications like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
Question 688Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent intravenous (IV) piggyback antibiotic to a client. The client currently has a continuous primary IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride running via an electronic infusion pump. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first verify medication compatibility, prepare the secondary tubing by spiking and priming, cleanse the primary line access port, attach the tubing while lowering the primary bag, and finally open the clamp and program the infusion pump.
The safe and effective administration of an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) medication follows a strict sequence prioritizing safety, asepsis, and fluid dynamics. First, the nurse must verify compatibility between the secondary medication and the primary infusion to prevent precipitation. Next, the nurse prepares the equipment by closing the clamp, spiking the bag, and priming the tubing to remove air. Once the equipment is ready, the nurse cleanses the uppermost access port (above the pump) immediately before connection to maintain strict asepsis. The nurse then attaches the secondary tubing and uses an extension hook to lower the primary bag; this utilizes hydrostatic pressure to ensure the secondary medication infuses first. Finally, the nurse opens the clamp and programs the infusion pump to deliver the medication safely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify the compatibility of the secondary antibiotic with the primary 0.9% sodium chloride infusion.
Ensures the two fluids will not react adversely when mixed in the primary tubing.
Incompatible medications can form crystals or precipitates, which can occlude the line or cause a fatal embolism in the client.
2
Close the secondary tubing roller clamp, spike the antibiotic bag, and prime the tubing.
The secondary line is filled with medication and all air is expelled.
Preparing the tubing before accessing the patient's line minimizes the time the access port is left open and prevents air from entering the circulatory system.
3
Cleanse the uppermost access port on the primary intravenous tubing with an antimicrobial swab.
The connection site is thoroughly disinfected.
Scrubbing the hub with friction removes microorganisms and prevents catheter-related bloodstream infections. This must be done immediately prior to connection.
4
Attach the secondary tubing to the primary line and use an extension hook to lower the primary fluid bag.
The secondary bag is positioned higher than the primary bag in the IV setup.
Because standard infusion pumps draw fluid from the highest source of hydrostatic pressure, hanging the secondary bag higher ensures the antibiotic infuses first rather than the primary fluid.
5
Open the secondary tubing roller clamp, program the infusion pump, and initiate the secondary infusion.
The antibiotic administration begins at the prescribed rate.
The electronic pump controls the precise delivery rate, and the clamp must be open to allow fluid flow and prevent occlusion alarms.

Key Concept

Safe administration of intravenous piggyback (IVPB) medications requires verifying compatibility, maintaining strict asepsis, and utilizing hydrostatic pressure to ensure the correct medication infuses.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 689Question →

A nurse enters the room of a client receiving internal radiation therapy (brachytherapy) for cervical cancer. The nurse discovers that the intracavitary radioactive applicator has accidentally dislodged and is resting on the client's bed linens. To safely reduce the risk of harmful radiation exposure, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Clear the room and keep the client still, 2) Don a lead apron, 3) Use long-handled forceps, 4) Place the implant in a lead-lined container, and 5) Notify the radiation safety officer and provider.
The correct sequence prioritizes the ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) radiation safety principles: Time, Distance, and Shielding. The immediate priority is to use distance to protect unshielded visitors by evacuating them and keeping the client still to prevent the source from falling. Next, the nurse must apply personal shielding (lead apron) before approaching the hazard. To minimize exposure time and maintain distance, the nurse uses long-handled forceps to retrieve the source and immediately secures it in a lead-lined container. Only after the acute physical hazard is contained should the nurse leave the bedside to notify the radiation safety officer and provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Instruct the client to remain completely still and direct all visitors to exit the room.
Unshielded individuals are removed from the radiation field.
Distance is the most effective immediate protection against radiation exposure. Keeping the client still prevents the source from falling to the floor, which would widen the contamination area.
2
Put on a lead-lined apron to ensure personal shielding.
The nurse's core organs are protected from gamma radiation.
ALARA principles dictate that personnel must utilize appropriate shielding before closely approaching an active radiation source.
3
Grasp the dislodged radioactive implant using long-handled forceps.
The radioactive source is retrieved safely.
Radioactive materials must never be touched directly with hands. Forceps provide necessary distance between the radiation source and the nurse's hands.
4
Place the radioactive implant into the lead-lined containment pig located in the room.
The radiation source is fully shielded and contained.
Placing the source in the designated lead pig immediately terminates the acute radiation exposure hazard in the environment.
5
Notify the radiation safety officer and the healthcare provider of the dislodgement.
Specialized personnel are alerted to the incident.
Once the immediate danger is neutralized, specialists must evaluate the client for potential tissue damage, sweep the room for residual radiation, and adjust the cancer treatment plan.

Key Concept

ALARA Principles and Internal Radiation Safety Protocols
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 690Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who suddenly develops severe dyspnea, extreme anxiety, and a cough producing pink, frothy sputum. The nurse suspects acute pulmonary edema. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last)

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position, Administer high-flow oxygen via a face mask, Assess vital signs and auscultate lung sounds, Administer prescribed intravenous furosemide, and finally, Document the clinical findings and response to interventions.
In an acute respiratory crisis such as pulmonary edema, the nurse must prioritize immediate, non-pharmacological life-saving actions. Positioning the client upright is the fastest intervention to improve breathing mechanics and reduce preload. This is immediately followed by oxygen administration to correct hypoxia. Once the airway and breathing are mechanically supported, the nurse must obtain baseline vital signs to ensure the client's blood pressure can tolerate the subsequent administration of intravenous loop diuretics. Finally, after the client is stabilized and interventions are implemented, the nurse documents the entire event.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
The diaphragm lowers and venous return decreases.
This immediate, equipment-free action maximizes lung expansion and reduces preload, directly addressing the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema.
2
Administer high-flow oxygen via a face mask.
Alveolar oxygen concentration increases.
The client is experiencing severe gas exchange impairment. Oxygen must be administered immediately after positioning to treat life-threatening hypoxia.
3
Assess vital signs and auscultate lung sounds.
Baseline clinical data is obtained.
Objective data must be gathered before administering medications to ensure the client is hemodynamically stable enough to receive diuretics.
4
Administer prescribed intravenous furosemide.
Diuresis is initiated.
Loop diuretics remove excess fluid and further decrease preload, which is the definitive treatment for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, but must follow ABC interventions and baseline assessment.
5
Document the clinical findings and response to interventions.
The medical record is updated.
Documentation is always the final step of the nursing process after completing acute interventions and stabilization.

Key Concept

Prioritization of acute pulmonary edema management follows the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and the nursing process, moving from immediate physical interventions to pharmacological treatments and concluding with documentation.
Question 691Question →

A charge nurse is evaluating the care of a client who returned to the unit following a large-volume paracentesis for severe ascites. Which of the following assessment findings or nursing actions require IMMEDIATE follow-up to prevent physiological decompensation? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: A heart rate of 118 beats per minute with a narrowing pulse pressure; A urine output of 15 mL collected over the first hour post-procedure; A rigid, board-like abdomen with generalized guarding upon palpation

Answer

The assessment findings requiring immediate follow-up are the heart rate of 118 beats per minute with a narrowing pulse pressure, the urine output of 15 mL over the first hour, and the rigid, board-like abdomen.
Following a large-volume paracentesis, clients are at extremely high risk for Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD) and hypovolemic shock due to rapid fluid shifts. Tachycardia combined with a narrowing pulse pressure and severe oliguria (15 mL/hr) are early, critical indicators of this life-threatening shock state. Additionally, a rigid, board-like abdomen with guarding is a definitive sign of peritonitis resulting from an accidental bowel perforation. All three of these findings indicate impending physiological decompensation and require immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the specific physiological risks associated with a large-volume paracentesis.
The primary risks include profound intravascular fluid shifts leading to hypovolemic shock (Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction) and organ damage such as accidental bowel puncture.
Rapid removal of ascitic fluid causes sudden splanchnic vasodilation and a significant decrease in effective arterial blood volume.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings for indicators of systemic shock or hypoperfusion.
A heart rate of 118 bpm coupled with a narrowing pulse pressure, along with an hourly urine output of only 15 mL, are critical indicators of decreased tissue perfusion.
Tachycardia and a narrowed pulse pressure are early compensatory mechanisms to maintain cardiac output; oliguria confirms inadequate renal blood flow.
3
Evaluate the clinical findings for signs of procedural trauma.
A rigid, board-like abdomen with guarding is an acute emergency finding.
This physical presentation is the cardinal sign of peritonitis, strongly suggesting an accidental bowel perforation occurred during the procedure.
4
Assess the remaining routine clinical data and nursing actions for appropriateness.
The ABG values are within expected normal limits, and placing the client in a high-Fowler's position is a therapeutically correct intervention.
Expected or normal findings and correct interventions do not require immediate correction or follow-up by the charge nurse.

Key Concept

Recognizing the manifestations of Post-Paracentesis Circulatory Dysfunction (PPCD) and procedural complications (peritonitis) to mitigate risk.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 692Question →

A surgical nurse is developing a daily care regimen for a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a right above-the-knee amputation. To prevent musculoskeletal complications and ensure safe hygiene practices, which intervention is most appropriate to include in the plan?

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Answer: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times daily.

Answer

Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes three to four times daily.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the client is at a high risk for developing hip flexion contractures, which can severely impair future mobility and the ability to use a prosthesis. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day promotes full extension of the hip joint and is the standard nursing intervention to prevent these contractures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's surgical procedure and postoperative timeframe.
The client is 48 hours post-above-the-knee amputation (AKA).
Identifying the procedure and timing helps determine the physiological risks, specifically hip flexion contractures which peak as a risk after the initial 24 hours.
2
Evaluate each intervention against the risk of hip flexion contractures.
Elevation on pillows and prolonged sitting both promote hip flexion and are contraindicated.
The hip must be periodically extended to maintain joint mobility for future prosthesis use.
3
Assess the delegation task for scope of practice compliance.
Delegating an incision evaluation to a UAP during a bed bath is inappropriate.
Assessment is strictly an RN responsibility.
4
Identify the action that safely promotes comfort and prevents complications.
Placing the client in a prone position for short intervals is the standard of care.
The prone position naturally extends the hip joint, directly counteracting the flexion contracture risk without compromising safety.

Key Concept

Postoperative Positioning and Contracture Prevention in Amputation
Question 693Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is recovering from a major abdominal surgery. Which vital sign change should the nurse identify as the earliest compensatory indicator of developing hypovolemic shock?

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Answer: Heart rate increasing from 82 to 110 beats per minute

Answer

Heart rate increasing from 82 to 110 beats per minute
An increasing heart rate is one of the first physiological adaptations to volume loss. The sympathetic nervous system triggers tachycardia to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion before systemic blood pressure begins to fall.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiological changes that occur during the initial stages of fluid volume loss.
The body attempts to compensate for decreased intravascular volume by activating the sympathetic nervous system.
Understanding the timeline of compensatory mechanisms is essential for early recognition of shock.
2
Evaluate the clinical signs associated with sympathetic nervous system activation.
Sympathetic activation leads to an increased heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output before blood pressure drops.
Tachycardia serves as an early warning sign that physiological adaptation is occurring.

Key Concept

Early physiological compensation in hypovolemic shock
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 694Question →

An 78-year-old client with a history of mild dementia is 24 hours post-operative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). During morning rounds, the client becomes acutely agitated and continuously attempts to pull at their indwelling urinary catheter. Which basic care and comfort intervention should the nurse implement?

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Answer: Conceal the catheter tubing beneath the client's gown using a stabilization device and provide a gentle hand massage to promote relaxation.

Answer

The most appropriate intervention is to visually conceal the catheter tubing beneath the gown using a stabilization device and provide a gentle hand massage to promote relaxation.
The most appropriate basic care and comfort strategy uses non-pharmacological interventions as a first-line approach. Visually concealing medical devices and securing them properly reduces the sensory triggers that cause confused clients to pull at them. A gentle hand massage provides tactile comfort and diverts the client's attention, promoting relaxation safely without the use of physical restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify the primary safety and comfort needs.
The client is 24 hours post-right THA, has mild dementia, and is experiencing acute agitation while pulling at an invasive device.
Understanding the surgical precautions and the root cause of the behavior is essential for planning safe, effective basic care.
2
Evaluate the appropriateness of non-pharmacological comfort measures versus physical restraints.
Concealing the device and offering tactile diversion (massage) is selected as the safest, least restrictive intervention.
Standard nursing guidelines require the use of less restrictive, non-pharmacological alternatives before applying physical restraints to prevent injury and promote dignity.
3
Identify contraindicated actions based on the client's recent surgical procedure and nursing scope of practice.
Positioning the client on the operative right hip and delegating assessments to the UAP are ruled out as unsafe and inappropriate.
Post-THA precautions strictly prohibit positioning on the operative side to prevent dislocation, and RNs cannot delegate clinical assessments to UAP.

Key Concept

Non-pharmacological comfort interventions and restraint alternatives
Question 695Question →

An adult client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of Lactated Ringer's solution at 100100 mL/hr through a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of ceftriaxone 11 gram IV piggyback to treat a diagnosed bacterial infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to safely administer the medication?

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Answer: Establish a separate peripheral intravenous access site to administer the ceftriaxone.

Answer

The nurse should establish a separate peripheral intravenous access site to administer the ceftriaxone.
Ceftriaxone is uniquely incompatible with calcium-containing solutions, such as Lactated Ringer's. When mixed, they form a crystalline precipitate that can cause life-threatening emboli in the lungs and kidneys. Because the client needs both the continuous fluid therapy and the stat antibiotic, establishing a second, independent IV line is the safest action to ensure timely and safe administration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the compatibility of the prescribed medication (ceftriaxone) with the continuously infusing intravenous fluid (Lactated Ringer's).
Identify that ceftriaxone and Lactated Ringer's are highly incompatible due to the calcium content in the Lactated Ringer's solution.
Ceftriaxone binds with calcium to form dangerous, life-threatening intravascular precipitates.
2
Determine the safest method of administration that ensures the client receives both necessary treatments promptly.
Decide to establish a separate peripheral intravenous line.
A dedicated line prevents any physical mixing of the incompatible solutions and avoids delaying the stat antibiotic dose.

Key Concept

Ceftriaxone and Calcium-Containing IV Fluids Incompatibility
Question 696Question →

A clinical nurse preceptor is reviewing the care plan drafted by a newly licensed nurse for an 82-year-old client. The client is bedbound with right-sided hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke, receives continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube, and has recently developed urinary incontinence. Which of the following planned interventions should the preceptor identify as correct and appropriate for the client's basic care and comfort? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30- to 45-degree angle while providing the client's daily bed bath.; Incorporate passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the client's right-sided extremities during hygiene care.; Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the client's perineal and sacral skin after cleansing incontinent episodes.

Answer

The correct interventions are maintaining the head of the bed elevated during the bed bath, incorporating passive range-of-motion exercises for the affected extremities, and applying a moisture barrier ointment to the perineal area.
The correct interventions prioritize client safety and physiological integrity. Maintaining the head of the bed at an elevated angle during a bed bath prevents reflux and aspiration of the continuous enteral feeding. Passive range-of-motion exercises preserve joint mobility in the hemiplegic limbs and prevent debilitating contractures. Applying a moisture barrier cream effectively protects the perineal and sacral skin from the corrosive effects of urinary incontinence, reducing the risk of pressure injuries and dermatitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and risk factors.
The client is at high risk for aspiration (continuous NG feed, stroke), immobility complications (hemiplegia, bedbound), and skin breakdown (incontinence).
Identifying physiological risks dictates which basic care interventions are safe and necessary.
2
Evaluate interventions related to airway safety and enteral feeding.
Keeping the head of the bed elevated during a bath is correct to prevent aspiration. Laying the client flat while the feeding runs is highly contraindicated.
Standard aspiration precautions must be maintained continuously unless the feeding is paused.
3
Evaluate interventions for mobility and skin integrity.
Passive ROM and moisture barrier applications are correct nursing actions to prevent contractures and skin breakdown.
These interventions directly address the client's deficits without causing harm.
4
Assess the appropriateness of delegation and patient education.
Delegating an assessment to a UAP is unsafe. Normalizing new-onset incontinence as 'normal aging' is a clinical error.
The RN retains responsibility for all assessments, and pathological changes must not be dismissed as age-related.

Key Concept

Basic care for clients with complex deficits requires maintaining aspiration precautions during ADLs, prioritizing skin and joint preservation, and distinguishing between normal aging and pathological changes.
Question 697Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) of cefazolin 1 gram1 \text{ gram} in 50 mL50 \text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to a client with a surgical site infection. The medication is prescribed to infuse over 30 minutes30 \text{ minutes}. At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the electronic infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

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Answer: 100

Answer

The electronic infusion pump should be set to 100 mL/hr.
To determine the correct rate for an electronic infusion pump in mL/hr, divide the total volume in mL by the total time in hours. Converting 30 minutes to 0.5 hours and dividing 50 mL by 0.5 hours results in an infusion rate of 100 mL/hr.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the total volume of the infusion.
50 mL50 \text{ mL}
The rate calculation requires the total volume of fluid to be administered.
2
Convert the prescribed infusion time from minutes to hours.
30 minutes÷60 minutes/hour=0.5 hours30 \text{ minutes} \div 60 \text{ minutes/hour} = 0.5 \text{ hours}
Electronic infusion pumps are typically programmed in milliliters per hour (mL/hr), so the time must be expressed in hours.
3
Calculate the infusion rate by dividing the total volume by the time in hours.
50 mL÷0.5 hours=100 mL/hr50 \text{ mL} \div 0.5 \text{ hours} = 100 \text{ mL/hr}
This calculation yields the required pump setting in mL/hr.

Key Concept

Calculating intravenous infusion rates for electronic infusion pumps (mL/hr).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 698Question →

A client admitted with cardiogenic shock is prescribed a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lbs176 \text{ lbs}. The pharmacy provides dopamine 400 mg400 \text{ mg} mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% NaCl0.9\% \text{ NaCl}.

At what rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse program the IV infusion pump? Record your answer as a whole number.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15

Answer

The correct infusion rate is 15 mL/hr.
The correct infusion rate is 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. This is determined by first converting the client's weight to kilograms (176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}). The total dose per minute is calculated (80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}) and then converted to an hourly rate (400 mcg/min×60=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}). After converting micrograms to milligrams (24,000 mcg=24 mg24,000 \text{ mcg} = 24 \text{ mg}), the required volume per hour is calculated using the provided medication concentration (24 mg400 mg×250 mL=15 mL/hr\frac{24 \text{ mg}}{400 \text{ mg}} \times 250 \text{ mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lbs÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on kilograms (mcg/kg/min).
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute.
80 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=400 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 400 \text{ mcg/min}
The prescription specifies administering 5 micrograms for every kilogram of body weight per minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
400 mcg/min×60 min/hr=24,000 mcg/hr400 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 24,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr, requiring the calculation of the total amount of medication needed per hour.
4
Convert the dose from micrograms to milligrams to match the medication concentration.
24,000 mcg/hr÷1,000=24 mg/hr24,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 = 24 \text{ mg/hr}
The available medication is supplied in milligrams, so the dose must be in the same unit before calculating volume.
5
Calculate the final volume rate based on the available concentration.
(24 mg/hr400 mg)×250 mL=15 mL/hr(\frac{24 \text{ mg/hr}}{400 \text{ mg}}) \times 250 \text{ mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This calculation determines how many mL contain the required 24 mg dose, yielding the final pump setting.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous IV infusion rate calculation
Question 699Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with severe pneumonia and dehydration. The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter, is receiving a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride, and has new prescriptions for scheduled IV levofloxacin and PRN IV morphine. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrate safe parenteral therapy practices? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Flushing the IV lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the PRN IV morphine.; Verifying the Y-site compatibility of levofloxacin with the continuous 0.9% sodium chloride infusion before administration.

Answer

The safe practices are flushing the IV lumen with sterile normal saline before and after administering the PRN IV morphine, and verifying the Y-site compatibility of levofloxacin with the continuous 0.9% sodium chloride infusion before administration.
Safe parenteral therapy requires confirming compatibility before mixing any fluids or medications in the same line. Furthermore, flushing a line with a compatible fluid like sterile normal saline before and after an IV push medication ensures the entire dose reaches the client and clears the line of any potential remnants that could react with subsequent infusions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each action for adherence to safe IV medication administration standards.
Flushing the line and checking compatibility are identified as fundamental safety protocols.
These actions prevent adverse drug interactions, precipitation, and ensure accurate dose delivery.
2
Analyze the action of administering IV morphine without a prior compatibility check.
This action is determined to be highly unsafe.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause physical or chemical incompatibilities, leading to severe patient harm.
3
Review the described method for calculating the levofloxacin infusion rate.
Excluding the diluent volume is identified as a critical calculation error.
The total volume infused (medication plus diluent) must be used to accurately program the IV pump to deliver the correct dose over the prescribed time.
4
Apply prioritization frameworks to the scenario involving a sudden onset of respiratory distress.
Ignoring acute respiratory distress to administer a scheduled medication is recognized as a life-threatening prioritization error.
Airway and breathing emergencies must be addressed immediately before performing routine tasks.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires strict adherence to drug compatibility checks, correct total volume calculations, proper line flushing, and prioritizing acute life-threatening changes over routine medication administration.
Question 700Question →

A clinical nurse is managing a client admitted with severe acute pyelonephritis. The client suddenly develops new-onset restlessness and confusion. Assessment reveals bounding peripheral pulses, warm and flushed skin, and the following vital signs: temperature 39.2∘C39.2^\circ\text{C} (102.6∘F102.6^\circ\text{F}), heart rate 128128 beats/minute, respiratory rate 3030 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 86/50 mm Hg86/50\text{ mm Hg}. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample drawn on room air demonstrates a pH of 7.507.50, PaCO 2_2 of 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}, PaO 2_2 of 82 mm Hg82\text{ mm Hg}, and HCO 3−_3^- of 21 mEq/L21\text{ mEq/L}. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most critical immediate action the nurse should execute?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid intravenous fluid bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Answer

Initiate a rapid intravenous fluid bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
The client's presentation of severe hypotension, marked tachycardia, warm/flushed skin, and bounding pulses, combined with a severe underlying infection (pyelonephritis), clearly indicates the early hyperdynamic phase of septic shock. The uncompensated respiratory alkalosis is a classic compensatory response to early systemic inflammation. The most critical, life-saving immediate action for distributive shock with relative hypovolemia is aggressive fluid resuscitation using isotonic crystalloids to restore circulating volume and organ perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The presence of severe hypotension (86/50 mm Hg86/50\text{ mm Hg}), marked tachycardia (128128 beats/minute), bounding pulses, and warm/flushed skin in a client with a severe infection indicates distributive shock, specifically the early hyperdynamic ('warm') phase of septic shock.
Recognizing the atypical presentation of early septic shock (warm skin instead of cool/clammy) is crucial for rapid intervention.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical scenario.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.507.50, PaCO 2_2 26 mm Hg26\text{ mm Hg}). In the context of infection, this is a classic early physiological response to systemic inflammation and endotoxin release.
Endotoxins directly stimulate the medullary respiratory center, causing hyperventilation before lactic acidosis has fully developed.
3
Determine the physiological priority based on the synthesized data.
The massive systemic vasodilation has caused a state of relative hypovolemia, drastically reducing perfusion to vital organs, as evidenced by the new-onset confusion.
Restoring intravascular volume is the absolute prerequisite before addressing vascular tone or secondary symptoms.
4
Select the appropriate evidence-based intervention.
Rapid administration of isotonic crystalloid fluids (typically 30 mL/kg30\text{ mL/kg}) is the primary, life-saving intervention for sepsis-induced tissue hypoperfusion.
Crystalloids quickly expand the intravascular space to compensate for the massive vasodilation.

Key Concept

Early (Hyperdynamic) Septic Shock Recognition and Initial Resuscitation
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