Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 861Question →

A nurse is caring for a client receiving a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. Fifteen minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden chills, severe lower back pain, and dyspnea. The client's heart rate is 115 beats/min and blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. What is the correct sequence of priority for the nurse's actions? Arrange the following steps in the correct order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the transfusion, then maintain the IV with normal saline using new tubing, assess the client, notify the healthcare provider, and finally send the blood and tubing to the blood bank.
In any suspected blood transfusion reaction, the absolute highest priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further antigens from entering the client's bloodstream. The second step is to maintain the IV line with normal saline using entirely new tubing; the old tubing must be disconnected to avoid flushing remaining blood into the client. Once the source is stopped and the IV is secured, the nurse performs a thorough assessment of vital signs and respiratory status. This complete clinical picture is then communicated to the healthcare provider to obtain orders for emergency interventions. Finally, as a follow-up action, the blood bag, labels, and tubing are sent to the blood bank for investigation into the cause of the reaction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary source of harm and stop it.
The blood transfusion is stopped immediately.
Continuing the transfusion exacerbates the acute hemolytic reaction and increases the risk of mortality.
2
Maintain vascular access safely.
Normal saline is initiated using completely new IV tubing.
IV access is crucial for administering emergency medications and fluids, but old tubing contains the reactive blood product which must not be flushed into the client.
3
Evaluate the client's physiological condition.
Vital signs and respiratory status are assessed.
Accurate, up-to-date assessment data is required to determine the extent of hemodynamic compromise before communicating with the provider.
4
Communicate findings to the medical team.
The healthcare provider is notified.
The provider needs the assessment data to prescribe appropriate pharmacological interventions.
5
Follow institutional protocols for reaction investigation.
The blood bag and tubing are returned to the blood bank.
Laboratory analysis of the remaining blood and tubing is necessary to determine the exact cause of the reaction.

Key Concept

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions prioritizes immediate cessation of the blood product, maintenance of IV access, and rapid clinical assessment.
Question 862Question →

A nurse is preparing to change the soiled bed linens for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. The client is currently resting comfortably in a semi-Fowler's position. Which action must the nurse take first before lowering the head of the bed to turn the client?

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Answer: Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump.

Answer

Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump.
When a client is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings, the head of the bed must remain elevated (typically 30 to 45 degrees) to prevent gastric reflux and pulmonary aspiration. Before lowering the head of the bed for any routine nursing care, such as repositioning or linen changes, the nurse must first pause the feeding pump to ensure client safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate risk associated with lowering the head of the bed for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings.
The primary risk is pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents if the client is placed supine while feeding is active.
Gravity helps keep enteral formula in the stomach; lowering the bed removes this protective factor.
2
Determine the necessary nursing intervention to mitigate this risk.
The nurse must stop the flow of the enteral formula.
Pausing the pump ensures no new formula enters the stomach while the client is lying flat for the linen change.

Key Concept

Aspiration Prevention during Enteral Feeding
Question 863Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who has a central venous catheter (CVC) in place. The client suddenly reports acute chest pain and shortness of breath, and the nurse observes a loose connection at the catheter hub. Suspecting a catheter-related air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed. (Arrange from first action to last action.)

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer high-flow oxygen, notify the rapid response team, and finally monitor vital signs.
An air embolism is a life-threatening complication of central venous catheters. The absolute priority is to stop more air from entering by clamping the line. Next, positioning the client on their left side with the head down (left lateral Trendelenburg) traps the air in the right ventricle, preventing it from entering the pulmonary circulation. Administering 100% oxygen helps relieve hypoxia and decreases the size of the air bubble. Calling for help ensures advanced care is on the way, and subsequent vital sign monitoring guides ongoing resuscitation efforts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop further air entry.
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Stopping the source of the air intake is the most critical immediate step to prevent the embolism from worsening.
2
Trap the existing air bubble.
Position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
This position uses gravity to keep the air trapped in the apex of the right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary circulation.
3
Treat hypoxia and reduce bubble size.
Administer 100% oxygen.
High concentrations of oxygen help wash out nitrogen from the air bubble, reducing its size while simultaneously treating tissue hypoxia.
4
Summon advanced medical assistance.
Notify the rapid response team.
Advanced medical intervention is required for hemodynamic support and potential aspiration of the air.
5
Continuously assess the client.
Obtain baseline vital signs.
Ongoing monitoring establishes a baseline for the medical team and detects signs of obstructive shock or cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

Emergency Management of a Central Venous Catheter Air Embolism
Question 864Question →

A nurse is reviewing a new medication order for a pediatric client who weighs 20 kg20\text{ kg}. The healthcare provider has prescribed oral amoxicillin 400 mg400\text{ mg} every 8 hours8\text{ hours} for an infection. The pharmacy reference states that the safe pediatric dosage range is 20 to 40 mg/kg/day20\text{ to }40\text{ mg/kg/day} administered in equally divided doses every 8 hours8\text{ hours}. Based on this information, which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider because the prescribed dose exceeds the safe maximum daily limit.

Answer

The nurse must withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider because the prescribed dose exceeds the safe maximum daily limit.
The prescribed dosage results in a total daily dose of 1200 mg1200\text{ mg} (400 mg400\text{ mg} administered 33 times a day). The safe maximum daily limit for a 20 kg20\text{ kg} child is 800 mg800\text{ mg} (40 mg/kg×20 kg40\text{ mg/kg} \times 20\text{ kg}). Because the order exceeds the safe limit, the nurse is required to hold the medication and clarify the order with the prescribing provider to prevent potential toxicity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the safe daily dosage range based on the client's weight.
Minimum: 20 kg×20 mg/kg/day=400 mg/day20\text{ kg} \times 20\text{ mg/kg/day} = 400\text{ mg/day}. Maximum: 20 kg×40 mg/kg/day=800 mg/day20\text{ kg} \times 40\text{ mg/kg/day} = 800\text{ mg/day}.
Weight-based calculations establish the therapeutic window to prevent toxicity.
2
Calculate the total prescribed daily dose.
The medication is prescribed every 8 hours8\text{ hours}, which equates to 33 doses in a 24-hour24\text{-hour} period. 400 mg/dose×3 doses/day=1200 mg/day400\text{ mg/dose} \times 3\text{ doses/day} = 1200\text{ mg/day}.
Comparing apples to apples requires calculating the total amount the client will receive over 24 hours.
3
Compare the prescribed daily dose to the safe range.
The ordered dose of 1200 mg/day1200\text{ mg/day} is significantly greater than the maximum safe limit of 800 mg/day800\text{ mg/day}.
Identifying that the dose falls outside the safe parameters is critical for preventing an adverse drug event.
4
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must withhold the medication and immediately contact the prescribing healthcare provider for an order revision.
Nurses have a legal and ethical duty to intercept medication errors and never administer a dose known to be toxic.

Key Concept

Pediatric Dosage Calculation and Medication Safety
Question 865Question →

Arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reveal a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg, HCO3- of 25 mEq/L, and PaO2 of 58 mm Hg. The client is restless and using accessory muscles to breathe. Which initial action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

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Answer: Assist the client into a high-Fowler's position and coach them on pursed-lip breathing.

Answer

Assist the client into a high-Fowler's position and coach them on pursed-lip breathing.
The client is experiencing acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.28, PaCO2 68 mm Hg) due to an exacerbation of COPD. The priority is to improve ventilation and facilitate the removal of trapped carbon dioxide. Assisting the client into a high-Fowler's position maximizes chest expansion, while coaching them on pursed-lip breathing creates mild positive airway pressure, keeping airways open longer during exhalation to blow off excess carbon dioxide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values to determine the acid-base imbalance.
pH is low (7.28), PaCO2 is high (68 mm Hg), and HCO3- is normal (25 mEq/L).
This indicates acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis caused by the retention of carbon dioxide.
2
Evaluate the client's clinical presentation alongside the ABG results.
The client is restless, using accessory muscles, and has hypoxemia (PaO2 58 mm Hg) due to COPD exacerbation.
Identifying the root cause (impaired ventilation and air trapping) guides the selection of the most effective nursing intervention.
3
Select the most appropriate initial nursing intervention to address impaired ventilation.
Positioning the client upright and using pursed-lip breathing are the best initial actions.
These non-pharmacologic interventions immediately improve lung expansion, facilitate carbon dioxide exhalation, and decrease the work of breathing without the risks associated with high-flow oxygen in COPD.

Key Concept

Management of acute respiratory acidosis in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Question 866Question →

An older adult client with a ten-year history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to the emergency department. The client's family reports a progressive decline in the client's level of consciousness over the past six hours, describing the client as 'extremely difficult to wake up.' The client's current respiratory rate is 88 breaths per minute and shallow. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air reveals the following: pH=7.21pH = 7.21, PaCO2=84 mm HgPaCO_2 = 84 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2=52 mm HgPaO_2 = 52 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−=36 mEq/LHCO_3^- = 36 \text{ mEq/L}. Based on these clinical findings, what is the highest priority nursing action?

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Answer: Prepare equipment and medications for immediate endotracheal intubation.

Answer

Prepare equipment and medications for immediate endotracheal intubation.
The correct action is to prepare for immediate intubation. The client's ABG reveals severe, acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis (pH=7.21pH = 7.21, PaCO2=84 mm HgPaCO_2 = 84 \text{ mm Hg}). The elevated bicarbonate indicates this is a chronic COPD patient, but the extremely low pH and elevated CO2, combined with a respiratory rate of 8 and profound lethargy, indicate carbon dioxide narcosis. The client is losing the ability to protect their airway or maintain adequate spontaneous ventilation. Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are required to offload the CO2CO_2 and reverse the life-threatening acidemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The low pH (7.21) indicates acidemia. The drastically elevated PaCO2 (84 mm Hg) indicates a respiratory cause. The elevated HCO3 (36 mEq/L) indicates chronic compensation that is currently failing due to an acute event.
Accurate interpretation of ABGs establishes the pathophysiological state as acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis.
2
Evaluate the client's physical presentation alongside the ABG data.
The respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute is dangerously low, and the severe lethargy ('extremely difficult to wake up') indicates carbon dioxide narcosis.
Clinical signs determine whether the client can manage their own airway non-invasively or if definitive invasive control is required.
3
Select the most appropriate and immediate physiological intervention.
Because the client is obtunded, hypoventilating, and in severe acid-base failure, mechanical ventilation via endotracheal intubation is the only viable method to clear the retained CO2 and secure the airway.
Airway and Breathing take highest priority in the ABC triage framework.

Key Concept

Acute Respiratory Failure and CO2 Narcosis in COPD
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 867Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a right subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Upon entering the room, the nurse discovers that the intravenous tubing has inadvertently disconnected from the CVC hub, leaving the catheter open to the air. The client is suddenly gasping for breath, grasping their chest, and exhibits a blood pressure of 76/40 mmHg76/40\text{ mmHg} with a heart rate of 138 bpm138\text{ bpm}. To immediately mitigate the risk of a fatal physiological complication, which action should the nurse perform first?

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Answer: Clamp the exposed catheter immediately and place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.

Answer

The nurse must first clamp the exposed catheter and position the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The client is experiencing a life-threatening venous air embolism resulting from an open central line. The immediate priority is to stop further air entry by clamping the catheter. Simultaneously, the nurse must place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver). This position utilizes gravity to trap the air bubble in the apex of the right ventricle, keeping it away from the pulmonary valve and allowing blood flow to bypass the obstruction, thereby temporarily restoring cardiac output and reducing the risk of sudden cardiac arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical emergency based on the assessment data.
The open central venous catheter combined with sudden respiratory distress and profound cardiovascular collapse (hypotension, tachycardia) indicates a massive venous air embolism.
Negative intrathoracic pressure during inspiration pulls atmospheric air directly into the central venous system through the open catheter hub.
2
Determine the physiological mechanism of the complication.
The air travels to the right side of the heart, forming an air lock in the right ventricle or pulmonary outflow tract.
This mechanical obstruction prevents blood from reaching the lungs, leading to acute obstructive shock and rapidly deteriorating hemodynamics.
3
Select the immediate priority intervention to reduce the risk of mortality.
The nurse must immediately occlude the source (clamp the catheter) and utilize gravity (left lateral Trendelenburg position) to displace the air bubble away from the pulmonary valve.
This specific positioning (Durant's maneuver) traps the air in the apex of the right ventricle, allowing blood to flow underneath the air bubble and temporarily restoring cardiac output while emergency assistance is summoned.

Key Concept

Venous Air Embolism Emergency Management
Question 868Question →

A client arrives on the medical unit immediately after undergoing a diagnostic lumbar puncture. To decrease the risk of a cerebrospinal fluid leak and subsequent post-procedure headache, which position is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

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Answer: Supine with the head of the bed flat

Answer

The most appropriate position is supine with the head of the bed flat.
Following a lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from leaking out of the dural puncture site. A flat position equalizes pressure along the spinal column, which is the primary intervention to prevent post-dural puncture headaches.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary complication associated with the procedure.
Following a lumbar puncture, clients are at risk for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which leads to a severe post-dural puncture headache.
Understanding the mechanism of the complication determines the necessary nursing intervention.
2
Determine the physical position that mitigates this specific risk.
The flat, supine position eliminates the gravity-induced pressure gradient at the spinal puncture site.
Keeping the pressure equalized prevents CSF from escaping through the unhealed dural membrane.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning
Question 869Question →

A nurse is preparing to provide oral hygiene to a comatose client. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes airway protection by first placing the client in a side-lying position, followed by setting up the towel and basin, opening the mouth with a padded blade, cleaning the oral cavity, and finally suctioning excess fluids.
The primary safety concern when providing oral care to an unresponsive client is maintaining airway patency and preventing aspiration. Therefore, the very first step must be placing the client in a side-lying position so fluids can naturally drain from the mouth. After the client is safely positioned, the nurse prepares the immediate environment with a towel and basin. A padded tongue blade is then used to safely separate the teeth without causing injury. Once the mouth is accessible, the nurse cleans the oral cavity. Finally, suctioning is performed to remove any residual fluids or secretions that were mobilized during cleaning.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the client in a side-lying position.
The client is positioned to allow secretions to drain out by gravity.
The highest priority is to protect the airway and prevent aspiration, which is achieved by utilizing gravity in the side-lying position.
2
Place a towel under the client's head and an emesis basin under the chin.
The environment is prepared for the procedure.
This maintains the cleanliness of the client's gown and bed linens during the procedure.
3
Gently open the client's mouth using a padded tongue blade.
The oral cavity is safely accessible for cleaning.
An unresponsive client may bite down involuntarily; a padded tongue blade safely keeps the mouth open without causing trauma.
4
Clean the oral cavity using a moistened sponge swab.
The teeth, gums, and tongue are cleansed.
This removes plaque, prevents infection, and maintains the integrity of the oral mucosa.
5
Suction the oral cavity to remove excess fluid and secretions.
The oral cavity is cleared of any residual fluid.
Suctioning eliminates any pooled liquids that the comatose client cannot swallow or expectorate, further preventing aspiration.

Key Concept

Prioritization of airway patency and aspiration prevention during hygiene care for unresponsive clients.
Question 870Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client who underwent a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft 12 hours ago. The client also has a documented history of severe chronic venous insufficiency and chronic stasis dermatitis in the left lower extremity. The client is currently resting in a low-Fowler's position, reports aching discomfort in both legs, and requests an intervention for comfort. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

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Answer: Maintain the right leg in a straight, un-elevated position on the mattress while elevating the left leg on a soft pillow.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to maintain the right leg in a straight, un-elevated position on the mattress while elevating the left leg on a soft pillow.
The client presents with two conflicting circulatory conditions requiring highly individualized positioning. Following a femoral-popliteal bypass, the affected extremity (right leg) must be kept straight and flat (or slightly dependent) to maintain graft patency and optimize arterial blood flow. Conversely, chronic venous insufficiency in the left leg requires elevation to promote venous return and reduce edema. The correct positioning strategy synthesizes these opposing needs by keeping the right leg flat and straight, while elevating the left leg on a pillow for comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's right leg positioning requirements.
The right leg has a fresh femoral-popliteal arterial bypass graft.
Arterial blood flow relies heavily on gravity and unobstructed vessels. To maintain graft patency and prevent occlusion, the right leg must be kept straight and should not be elevated above the level of the heart.
2
Analyze the client's left leg positioning requirements.
The left leg has severe chronic venous insufficiency.
Venous return is compromised in this extremity. Elevating the leg utilizes gravity to promote venous blood return to the heart, reducing edema and discomfort.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the competing physiological needs.
Only positioning the right leg flat and elevating the left leg safely addresses both conditions simultaneously.
Generalized elevation harms the arterial graft, while keeping both legs dependent exacerbates venous stasis.
4
Review other basic care aspects such as delegation and safety principles.
Delegating ROM to the UAP and placing pillows directly under the knees are identified as unsafe practices.
A fresh surgical bypass graft requires continuous RN assessment, and popliteal pressure compromises all lower extremity circulation.

Key Concept

Individualized Client Positioning and Comfort Measures
Question 871Question →

An adult client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of pantoprazole for a gastrointestinal bleed. The healthcare provider's new orders include a secondary IV infusion of ciprofloxacin and an IV push dose of ondansetron for nausea. Which of the following actions must the nurse perform to ensure safe parenteral medication administration? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Flush the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the IV push ondansetron.; Verify the Y-site compatibility of ondansetron with pantoprazole prior to administering the IV push dose.; Administer the IV push ondansetron slowly over 2 to 5 minutes to prevent adverse cardiovascular reactions.

Answer

The correct actions include flushing the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after the IV push, verifying Y-site compatibility prior to administration, and pushing the medication slowly over 2 to 5 minutes.
Safe parenteral therapy requires meticulous attention to compatibility, flushing protocols, and administration rates. Flushing the line clears incompatible fluids and ensures full dose delivery. Verifying Y-site compatibility prevents chemical precipitation in the tubing. Pushing the medication slowly over 2 to 5 minutes prevents speed shock and immediate adverse cardiovascular reactions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core safety requirements for administering multiple parenteral medications through a single IV access.
The nurse must safely manage a continuous infusion (pantoprazole), a secondary infusion (ciprofloxacin), and an IV push (ondansetron) without causing drug interactions or patient harm.
Simultaneous administration of multiple IV medications increases the risk of physical and chemical incompatibilities in the IV tubing.
2
Evaluate the principles of IV push administration.
Safe IV push technique requires checking compatibility, using the Y-site closest to the patient, flushing the line before and after, and administering at the manufacturer's recommended rate.
These steps ensure the medication enters the bloodstream promptly and prevents complications such as speed shock or line occlusion.
3
Evaluate the principles of secondary IV infusions and pump programming.
The nurse must verify drug compatibility regardless of visual clarity and program the pump in mL/hr by converting the administration time into hours.
Microscopic precipitates can form even in visibly clear solutions, and infusion pumps strictly require hourly rate calculations.

Key Concept

Safe Parenteral Medication Administration
Question 872Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of heparin at a rate of 1818 units/kg/hr. The client weighs 176176 lb. The pharmacy provides an IV bag containing 25,00025,000 units of heparin mixed in 250250 mL of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). At what rate, in mL/hr, should the nurse set the IV infusion pump? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth.)

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Answer: 14.4

Answer

14.4
To find the correct infusion rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (176 lb÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}). Next, the weight is multiplied by the prescribed dose to find the hourly requirement (80 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1,440 units/hr80 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr} = 1,440 \text{ units/hr}). Finally, using the available concentration (25,000 units÷250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}), the nurse calculates the volume needed per hour (1,440 units/hr÷100 units/mL=14.4 mL/hr1,440 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 14.4 \text{ mL/hr}). The final answer is exactly 14.414.4, which requires no further rounding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
8080 kg
The heparin prescription is weight-based in kg, so the given weight in pounds must be converted using the standard factor 1 kg=2.2 lb1 \text{ kg} = 2.2 \text{ lb}.
2
Calculate the total hourly dose of heparin required in units.
1,4401,440 units/hr
Multiplying the client's weight in kg by the prescribed dose per kg gives the total hourly requirement: 80 kg×18 units/kg/hr80 \text{ kg} \times 18 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
3
Determine the concentration of the available heparin solution.
100100 units/mL
Dividing the total units in the bag by the total volume yields the amount of medication in a single mL: 25,000 units÷250 mL25,000 \text{ units} \div 250 \text{ mL}.
4
Calculate the final IV infusion pump rate in mL/hr.
14.414.4 mL/hr
Dividing the required hourly dose by the solution concentration gives the volume needed per hour: 1,440 units/hr÷100 units/mL1,440 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL}.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation and continuous infusion pump programming.
Question 873Question →

A client who sustained an extensive anterior wall myocardial infarction is receiving care in the coronary intensive care unit. Which of the following clinical indicators should alert the nurse that the client is transitioning into cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Urine output of 15 mL/hr for two consecutive hours; Cool, clammy skin with delayed capillary refill; Increasing restlessness and new-onset confusion

Answer

The clinical indicators of cardiogenic shock include urine output of 15 mL/hr for two consecutive hours, cool and clammy skin with delayed capillary refill, and increasing restlessness with new-onset confusion.
Cardiogenic shock represents severe left ventricular failure resulting in profound hypoperfusion to systemic tissues. The body attempts to compensate through sympathetic nervous system activation, which causes peripheral vasoconstriction (manifesting as cool, clammy skin). As vital organs are deprived of oxygen-rich blood, early end-organ dysfunction occurs, presenting as altered mentation due to cerebral hypoxia and oliguria due to renal hypoperfusion. Recognizing these early signs is critical for timely, life-saving interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the underlying pathophysiology of cardiogenic shock.
Cardiogenic shock results from severe pump failure, leading to significantly decreased cardiac output and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Understanding the core mechanism helps predict the systemic compensatory responses and end-organ effects.
2
Evaluate each option against the expected physiological adaptations to decreased cardiac output.
Restlessness (decreased cerebral perfusion), oliguria (decreased renal perfusion), and cool/clammy skin (compensatory peripheral vasoconstriction) align with poor systemic perfusion.
End-organ ischemia produces predictable clinical manifestations that require rapid identification.
3
Differentiate expected shock findings from the incorrect distractors.
Lactic acid buildup causes metabolic acidosis (not respiratory alkalosis), and decreased stroke volume causes a narrow pulse pressure with weak pulses (not widened/bounding).
Eliminating findings that contradict the hemodynamics of pump failure ensures accurate clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Clinical Manifestations of Cardiogenic Shock
Question 874Question →

A client arrives at the medical-surgical unit immediately after undergoing a lumbar puncture. To promote comfort and minimize post-procedure complications, which of the following positions should the nurse maintain the client in?

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Answer: Supine with the head of the bed flat

Answer

The client should be maintained in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
Following a lumbar puncture, it is standard practice to keep the client lying flat in a supine position. This fundamental intervention equalizes pressure in the spinal canal and prevents the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the dural puncture site, thereby significantly reducing the risk of a post-puncture spinal headache.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure the client just underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Different procedures require specific post-operative positioning to prevent complications.
2
Determine the primary physiological risk associated with a lumbar puncture.
The main risks include cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage and subsequent spinal headaches.
Understanding the risk guides the appropriate nursing intervention for comfort and safety.
3
Select the position that minimizes this specific risk.
Lying flat in a supine position is required.
A flat position equalizes CSF pressure and prevents fluid from leaking out of the puncture site.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Positioning
Question 875Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with right-sided lobar pneumonia. The client is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula but continues to experience significant dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and increasing restlessness. The client's oxygen saturation is 88%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best promote the client's oxygenation and comfort?

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Answer: Assist the client into a left side-lying (lateral decubitus) position.

Answer

Assist the client into a left side-lying (lateral decubitus) position.
In the management of unilateral lung disease such as right-sided lobar pneumonia, the priority is to optimize ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching. Placing the client in the lateral decubitus position with the unaffected 'good' lung dependent (down) utilizes gravity to direct more pulmonary blood flow to the healthy lung. Because the healthy lung has better alveolar ventilation, increasing its perfusion significantly improves overall oxygenation. Since this client has right-sided pneumonia, the left lung is the healthy lung, making the left side-lying position the most appropriate and effective basic care intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological problem presented in the scenario.
The client has right-sided lobar pneumonia with signs of worsening hypoxia, including dyspnea, pleuritic pain, restlessness, and an SpO2 of 88%.
Recognizing the severity of the respiratory compromise dictates the urgency and type of nursing interventions required.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the client's increasing restlessness.
Restlessness is identified as an early neurological sign of inadequate oxygenation to the brain, requiring immediate intervention to improve gas exchange.
Accurate interpretation of clinical signs prevents the misattribution of symptoms to benign causes, such as typical aging or hospital delirium.
3
Determine the optimal positioning strategy for unilateral lung disease.
Apply the physiological principle of 'good lung down', which uses gravity to increase pulmonary blood flow to the most ventilated lung segments, thereby improving ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching.
Therapeutic positioning is a primary basic care intervention that directly impacts physiological adaptation and oxygenation.
4
Select the correct nursing action based on the location of the pathology.
Because the pneumonia is right-sided, the left lung is the healthy lung. Therefore, assisting the client into the left lateral decubitus position is the correct action.
This specific position maximizes oxygenation while avoiding interventions that could worsen the patient's status.

Key Concept

Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching and therapeutic positioning in unilateral lung disease
Question 876Question →

A client diagnosed with severe gastroenteritis has a confirmed serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L2.8\text{ mEq/L}. The healthcare provider prescribes 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} of intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) diluted in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride. Which action is essential for the nurse to implement for safe administration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Program an electronic infusion pump to deliver the medication over a minimum of two hours.

Answer

Program an electronic infusion pump to deliver the medication over a minimum of two hours.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that must always be administered via an electronic infusion pump to prevent rapid infusion, which can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The maximum safe infusion rate through a peripheral line is typically 10 mEq/hr10\text{ mEq/hr}. Therefore, a 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} dose must be infused over a minimum of two hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the medication and its safety profile.
Potassium chloride is recognized as a high-alert medication that can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias if administered too rapidly.
Recognizing high-alert medications is essential for determining the appropriate safety protocols and preventing patient harm.
2
Determine the maximum safe infusion rate for the medication.
The maximum recommended intravenous infusion rate for potassium chloride through a peripheral line is 10 mEq/hr10\text{ mEq/hr}.
Adhering to the maximum safe rate prevents medication toxicity and adverse cardiac events.
3
Calculate the minimum safe infusion time for the prescribed dose.
The prescribed dose of 20 mEq20\text{ mEq} divided by the maximum rate of 10 mEq/hr10\text{ mEq/hr} equals a minimum infusion time of 2 hours2\text{ hours}.
Mathematical verification of the infusion duration ensures the rate does not exceed evidence-based safety guidelines.
4
Select the safest administration method.
The medication must be administered using an electronic infusion pump over at least two hours.
Electronic infusion pumps provide precise control over the delivery rate, preventing accidental rapid infusion that could occur with gravity administration.

Key Concept

Safe Intravenous Administration of Potassium Chloride
Question 877Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Arrange the following steps in the correct order of performance from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the client safely by elevating the head of the bed, then verify the tube's placement, check the gastric residual volume, administer the feeding formula, and finally flush the tube with water.
The standard sequence for enteral feeding administration prioritizes safety and aspiration prevention above all else. Proper positioning is the most immediate physical safeguard and must be done first. Verifying placement ensures the tube is currently residing in the stomach and not the lungs. Checking the residual volume assesses the client's current digestion and tolerance. Only after these critical safety checks are completed is the feeding administered. Finally, flushing clears the tube to maintain patency for future use.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client safely.
The head of the bed is elevated to 30-45 degrees (Semi-Fowler's position).
This utilizes gravity to keep stomach contents from refluxing into the esophagus, significantly reducing the risk of aspiration.
2
Confirm the tube's anatomical location.
Correct placement in the stomach is verified.
This ensures the feeding formula will enter the gastrointestinal tract and not the lungs, which could cause severe respiratory complications.
3
Assess feeding tolerance.
Gastric residual volume is aspirated and measured.
This determines if the client is adequately digesting previous feedings; excessively large volumes may require holding the current feeding.
4
Deliver the nutrition.
The prescribed enteral feeding formula is administered.
Provides the necessary nutritional support after all safety parameters have been confirmed.
5
Maintain tube patency.
The nasogastric tube is flushed with 30 mL of water.
Clears residual formula from the tube, preventing clogs and bacterial growth.

Key Concept

Safe administration sequence for enteral tube feedings
Question 878Question →

A nurse is assisting a client to change a soiled hospital gown. The client has a continuous peripheral intravenous (IV) infusion in the right forearm. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps from first to last.)

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Answer

The correct sequence is to undress the unaffected (left) arm first, then remove the gown from the affected (right) arm by threading the IV bag through the sleeve. Next, the clean gown is prepared by threading the IV bag through the right sleeve, followed by dressing the affected arm, and finally dressing the unaffected arm.
When a client has an IV line, the primary principle of dressing and undressing is to undress the unaffected arm first and dress the affected arm first. This provides maximum slack in the garment and minimizes tension on the IV site. Furthermore, to prevent infection, the IV system must remain closed at all times. Disconnecting the IV tubing to change a gown is strictly contraindicated; instead, the IV fluid bag must be passed through the gown sleeves.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Remove the soiled gown from the unaffected (left) arm.
The left arm is free, providing slack in the gown.
Removing the gown from the unaffected limb first prevents pulling or tension on the IV line.
2
Slide the soiled gown down the affected (right) arm and pass the IV bag through the sleeve.
The soiled gown is completely removed while keeping the IV system intact.
The IV system must remain closed to prevent infection; passing the bag through the sleeve accomplishes this without disconnection.
3
Pass the IV fluid bag through the right sleeve of the clean gown and rehang it.
The clean gown is positioned on the IV tubing.
Threading the bag through the sleeve first prepares the gown to be drawn up the client's arm while maintaining the IV flow.
4
Guide the affected (right) arm into the clean sleeve.
The right arm and IV tubing are properly covered.
Dressing the affected limb first minimizes manipulation of the IV site.
5
Place the unaffected (left) arm into the remaining sleeve and tie the gown.
The client is fully dressed in the clean gown.
The unaffected arm has full range of motion and is easiest to dress last.

Key Concept

Maintaining a closed intravenous system while assisting with hygiene and gown changes.
Question 879Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department experiencing a severe panic attack. The client is visibly agitated and has been hyperventilating for the past twenty minutes. Based on this respiratory pattern, which of the following acid-base imbalances should the nurse expect?

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Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis
The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis because hyperventilation causes the body to exhale too much carbon dioxide. Since carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the blood, its excessive loss leads to a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in blood pH, creating an alkalotic state.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing a panic attack and is hyperventilating.
Identifying the root physiological change is necessary to determine the potential acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the physiological effect of hyperventilation.
Rapid, deep breathing causes an excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide (CO2).
CO2 acts as an acid in the body. Understanding its movement explains the shift in blood pH.
3
Correlate the loss of CO2 with the specific acid-base imbalance.
A deficit of carbonic acid (from exhaled CO2) leads to an increased blood pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
The primary cause is respiratory in nature, and the loss of acid creates an alkaline state.

Key Concept

Respiratory Alkalosis secondary to Hyperventilation
Question 880Question →

During the immediate postoperative period following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, the nurse plans care to maintain joint stability. Which specific action must the nurse implement to protect the new prosthesis from dislocation?

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Answer: Maintain an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities.

Answer

Maintain an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, the joint is highly susceptible to dislocation if it is adducted, internally rotated, or flexed beyond 90 degrees. Maintaining an abduction wedge between the legs physically prevents adduction (the legs crossing the midline), thereby reducing the risk of the prosthesis popping out of the joint socket.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific structural risks.
The client underwent a posterior total hip arthroplasty, which carries a high risk of posterior dislocation.
Different surgical approaches dictate specific postoperative movement restrictions.
2
Determine the contraindicated movements for a posterior approach.
The restricted movements are hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
Understanding the mechanism of injury is required to select the correct preventative nursing intervention.
3
Select the nursing action that actively prevents these hazardous movements.
Placing an abduction wedge between the legs prevents adduction, directly mitigating the risk of dislocation.
This intervention aligns with the core goal of reducing risk potential in the immediate postoperative period.

Key Concept

Postoperative risk reduction for a posterior total hip arthroplasty requires strict avoidance of hip adduction, internal rotation, and severe flexion.
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