Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 141Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client who returned to the neurological unit 30 minutes ago following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following assessment findings or observations require immediate intervention by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client is sitting upright in a high-Fowler's position to eat a meal.; The sterile gauze dressing over the insertion site is saturated with clear fluid.; The client reports a new onset of bilateral lower extremity numbness and weakness.

Answer

The findings that require immediate intervention are the client sitting in a high-Fowler's position, the dressing being saturated with clear fluid, and the client reporting new-onset lower extremity numbness and weakness.
Following a lumbar puncture, the nurse must monitor for physiological complications such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks, spinal hematomas, and positional contraindications. Sitting upright shortly after the procedure increases the risk of a spinal headache due to CSF leakage and requires immediate intervention to return the client to a flat position. A dressing saturated with clear fluid actively indicates a CSF leak, requiring prompt provider notification. New-onset numbness and weakness are signs of spinal cord or nerve root compression (such as from a developing spinal hematoma) and constitute a medical emergency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate each finding to distinguish between expected post-procedural outcomes and signs of impending complications.
Identified that mild lower back soreness and lying flat are expected and safe.
A lumbar puncture involves needle insertion into the subarachnoid space, causing expected local soreness. Flat positioning is mandated to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage.
2
Identify findings that indicate a risk for neurological compromise.
Clear fluid on the dressing indicates a CSF leak. Numbness and weakness suggest spinal nerve compression.
A CSF leak can lead to severe spinal headaches and infection. Nerve compression (e.g., from an expanding hematoma) requires urgent evaluation to prevent permanent nerve damage.
3
Assess the client's current positioning for procedural safety.
Sitting upright in a high-Fowler's position immediately after the procedure is identified as a safety risk.
Upright positioning increases pressure on the dural puncture site, which can actively induce a CSF leak and subsequent spinal headache.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Lumbar Puncture Complications
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 142Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has right-sided hemiplegia and severe dysphagia following a recent cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when managing the client's nutritional intake?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Direct small bites of food into the left side of the client's mouth to promote safe swallowing.

Answer

The correct action is to direct small bites of food into the left side of the client's mouth.
The correct action is to place food on the left side of the client's mouth. The client has right-sided hemiplegia, which indicates weakness on the right side of the body and oral cavity. Placing food on the unaffected (stronger) side facilitates effective chewing, improves bolus control, and significantly decreases the risk of aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's specific physiological deficits based on the clinical scenario.
The client has right-sided hemiplegia and severe dysphagia, which means the musculature on the right side of the face and throat is weak and swallowing is compromised.
Understanding the precise anatomical and functional limitations dictates the necessary safety interventions for oral feeding.
2
Evaluate the proposed feeding interventions for safety and anatomical appropriateness.
Placing food on the left side utilizes the intact, stronger musculature on the unaffected side.
Using the strong side of the mouth maximizes chewing efficiency, provides better control of the food bolus, and minimizes the likelihood of aspiration.
3
Assess the remaining options against standards of care for positioning, delegation, and gerontology.
The other options violate principles of safe delegation, correct aspiration-prevention positioning, and the clinical distinction between pathology and normal aging.
The nurse must ensure all interventions align with evidence-based practice for dysphagia management to prevent life-threatening complications.

Key Concept

Dysphagia feeding precautions and aspiration prevention
Question 143Question →

A nurse is caring for a conscious client with diabetes mellitus who suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and reports feeling shaky. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence follows the 'Rule of 15' for hypoglycemia management: First, check the blood glucose level; second, administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate; third, recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes; and finally, provide a complex carbohydrate and protein snack.
The sequence follows standard physiological adaptation protocols for acute hypoglycemia, known as the 'Rule of 15'. The nurse must first confirm the suspected hypoglycemia with a capillary blood glucose check to ensure safe practice. Once confirmed, 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate is administered because it absorbs rapidly to correct the deficit. The nurse then waits 15 minutes and re-evaluates the blood glucose to confirm the intervention worked. Finally, because simple sugars metabolize quickly, a complex carbohydrate and protein snack is given to stabilize the blood sugar and prevent a rebound hypoglycemic episode.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's current status.
Capillary blood glucose is measured.
Objective data is required to validate the clinical signs of diaphoresis and shakiness.
2
Provide rapid intervention.
15 grams of simple carbohydrates are absorbed quickly.
Fast-acting carbohydrates immediately reverse the acute hypoglycemic state.
3
Evaluate the intervention.
Blood glucose is rechecked after exactly 15 minutes.
Reassessment determines if another 15 grams of carbohydrates is needed or if the crisis has resolved.
4
Stabilize the physiological state.
A complex carbohydrate and protein snack is consumed.
Slower-digesting macronutrients provide sustained glucose release to prevent a secondary crash.

Key Concept

Hypoglycemia Management Protocol (Rule of 15)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 144Question →

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration records for four newly admitted clients. Which prescribed parenteral therapy should the nurse question immediately?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: IV labetalol for a client with a hypertensive emergency and a medical history of severe asthma

Answer

The prescription for IV labetalol in a client with a history of severe asthma.
Labetalol is a non-selective beta-blocker that antagonizes both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. While it effectively lowers blood pressure by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart, its beta-2 blockade can trigger severe, potentially fatal bronchoconstriction in clients with a history of asthma. The nurse must question this order immediately and request a cardioselective antihypertensive agent.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the mechanism of action for the prescribed antihypertensive medication.
Labetalol is identified as a non-selective beta-blocker, meaning it antagonizes both beta-1 (cardiac) and beta-2 (pulmonary) receptors.
Understanding receptor affinity is essential to predict adverse pharmacological effects.
2
Cross-reference the drug's mechanism with the client's medical history.
The client has a history of severe asthma. Blockade of beta-2 receptors in the lungs prevents bronchodilation and can induce severe bronchospasm.
Identifying absolute contraindications prevents life-threatening iatrogenic complications.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the required nursing intervention.
The therapy poses an immediate, severe risk to the client's airway. The nurse must withhold the medication and question the healthcare provider.
Patient advocacy requires intercepting harmful medication orders and requesting a safe alternative, such as a cardioselective agent.

Key Concept

Non-selective Beta-blocker Contraindications
Question 145Question →

A nurse is monitoring a client who has sustained severe bleeding and is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which of the following vital sign changes should the nurse identify as an early indicator of this condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mild tachycardia

Answer

Mild tachycardia is the earliest indicator of compensatory shock.
In the initial (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the decreased blood volume triggers the sympathetic nervous system. This causes the heart rate to increase (tachycardia) as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and ensure adequate tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the body's physiological response to acute blood or fluid loss.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system to compensate for decreased intravascular volume.
Understanding the compensatory mechanisms is essential to identifying early clinical signs.
2
Evaluate the given vital sign changes against early compensatory mechanisms.
Tachycardia is recognized as the initial response to maintain cardiac output, whereas hypotension is a late sign.
To accurately differentiate between early and late indicators of clinical deterioration.

Key Concept

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock
Question 146Question →

During a shift, a nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intermittent intravenous (IV) ciprofloxacin to a client. The client has only one peripheral IV catheter, which is currently being used for a continuous IV infusion of pantoprazole. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult a pharmacology reference to verify the Y-site compatibility of pantoprazole and ciprofloxacin.

Answer

The priority action is to consult a pharmacology reference to verify the Y-site compatibility of the two medications.
The correct answer emphasizes that whenever a client is receiving a continuous IV infusion and a new IV medication is prescribed through the same access, the nurse must first verify Y-site compatibility. If medications are incompatible, they can form a precipitate, which can lead to catheter occlusion or a life-threatening embolus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the current intravenous setup and the new medication prescription.
The client has a single IV line with a continuous infusion, and a new intermittent medication must be administered simultaneously or sequentially.
Identifying the physical constraints of the IV access is essential for planning safe administration.
2
Recognize the potential risks associated with mixing two intravenous medications.
Mixing incompatible medications can cause precipitation, which may occlude the catheter or result in a systemic embolus.
Understanding the severe consequences of physical or chemical incompatibility highlights the need for strict verification protocols.
3
Determine the required nursing intervention prior to taking any physical action.
The nurse must verify Y-site compatibility using an approved drug reference guide before making any connections.
Ensuring compatibility is a mandatory, non-invasive safety check that dictates all subsequent actions.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral medications requires verifying Y-site compatibility when multiple intravenous drugs share a single access line to prevent adverse reactions such as precipitation.
Question 147Question →

During a shift assessment, a client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is found to be lethargic and responds only to painful stimuli. The client was admitted earlier in the day for an acute respiratory exacerbation and is receiving continuous oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Stat arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.24, PaCO2 of 71 mm Hg, PaO2 of 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 32 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare for the immediate initiation of positive pressure ventilation or endotracheal intubation.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare for the immediate initiation of positive pressure ventilation or endotracheal intubation to address the acute respiratory failure.
The client's clinical presentation of lethargy combined with an ABG showing a pH of 7.24 and a PaCO2 of 71 mm Hg indicates acute respiratory acidosis and carbon dioxide narcosis. This represents impending or actual respiratory failure. Because the client responds only to painful stimuli, they are unable to protect their airway or maintain adequate spontaneous ventilation. The most critical and immediate intervention is to provide ventilatory support through noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (such as BiPAP) or endotracheal intubation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's neurological status and vital signs.
The client is lethargic and responds only to painful stimuli, indicating severe central nervous system depression.
Altered mental status in a client with COPD often points to dangerous carbon dioxide retention (CO2 narcosis).
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
pH 7.24 (acidosis), PaCO2 71 mm Hg (primary respiratory acidosis), HCO3 32 mEq/L (partial metabolic compensation), PaO2 65 mm Hg (mild to moderate hypoxemia).
Understanding the acid-base imbalance confirms that the primary physiological problem is severe hypoventilation leading to acute respiratory acidosis.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client cannot maintain an adequate airway or spontaneous ventilation due to the depressed level of consciousness.
When a client fails to ventilate and protect their airway, advanced mechanical support (BiPAP or intubation) becomes the immediate life-saving priority.

Key Concept

Acute respiratory failure and carbon dioxide narcosis management in COPD
Question 148Question →

A nurse is titrating a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside for a client experiencing a hypertensive emergency. The client weighs 198 lbs198 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W). The client's current infusion rate is set at 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}. The healthcare provider prescribes an increase in the continuous infusion dose by 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. What is the new infusion pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 28.5

Answer

28.5
The correct new infusion rate is determined by first calculating the requested dose increase based on the client's weight in kilograms. After determining the hourly microgram requirement, the nurse must convert that dose into a fluid volume using the concentration of the supplied medication. Finally, the calculated rate increase must be added to the current infusion rate to determine the new overall pump setting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=90 kg198 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 90 \text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in kilograms to ensure accuracy.
2
Determine the concentration of the sodium nitroprusside solution in mcg/mL\text{mcg/mL}.
50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
To convert the prescribed dose into a fluid volume, the concentration must be calculated in the same mass unit (micrograms) as the prescription.
3
Calculate the required dose increase in mcg/min\text{mcg/min} and then convert to mcg/hr\text{mcg/hr}.
0.5 mcg/kg/min×90 kg=45 mcg/min0.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 90 \text{ kg} = 45 \text{ mcg/min}. 45 mcg/min×60 min/hr=2,700 mcg/hr45 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 2,700 \text{ mcg/hr}
This calculation determines the total additional amount of active medication the client needs per hour.
4
Calculate the increase in the infusion rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
2,700 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=13.5 mL/hr2,700 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 13.5 \text{ mL/hr}
This step determines the additional fluid volume needed per hour to deliver the extra dose of medication.
5
Determine the new final infusion rate by adding the calculated volume increase to the current infusion rate.
15 mL/hr+13.5 mL/hr=28.5 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr} + 13.5 \text{ mL/hr} = 28.5 \text{ mL/hr}
The provider prescribed an increase to the ongoing continuous infusion, so the calculated volume must be added to the baseline rate.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous continuous infusion titration calculations
Question 149Question →

A nurse is educating a client who sustained a right fractured tibia and is prescribed non-weight-bearing status on the affected leg. The client is learning how to ascend a flight of stairs using a three-point crutch gait. Arrange the following instructions in the correct chronological sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence involves establishing a tripod position, shifting weight completely to the crutches, advancing the unaffected leg to the step, transferring weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bringing the crutches and affected leg up to the same step.
When ascending stairs with crutches, the client must first establish a stable base (tripod position) and support their body weight on the crutches. This securely frees the unaffected (strong) leg to be lifted onto the step. Once the strong leg is on the higher step, the client shifts their weight onto it, utilizing the strength of the unaffected leg to elevate the rest of the body. Finally, the crutches and the affected leg are brought up to the same step. This exact sequence follows the fundamental orthopedic principle of 'up with the good'.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical status and the requested procedure.
The client is non-weight-bearing on the right leg and must safely ascend stairs using a three-point gait.
Understanding the weight-bearing status dictates which extremity must support the client's weight during the elevation change.
2
Identify the foundational physiological rule for crutch walking on stairs.
The core rule is 'up with the good, down with the bad'. The unaffected leg always leads when ascending.
This principle ensures the strong leg performs the lifting work against gravity while the affected leg remains protected.
3
Determine the chronological sequence of the physical movements.
Tripod stance -> weight to crutches -> step up with strong leg -> weight to strong leg -> bring up crutches and weak leg.
This specific sequence maintains continuous stability and prevents falls while navigating the stairs.

Key Concept

Assistive Device Ambulation: Three-Point Gait Stair Ascent
Question 150Question →

A nurse is removing a client's central venous access device (CVAD). As the catheter is withdrawn, the client suddenly gasps, reports severe chest pain, and becomes acutely dyspneic. The oxygen saturation drops abruptly to 83%. Suspecting a venous air embolism, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the items in the correct sequence from first to last.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for managing a suspected venous air embolism is: 1) Apply an occlusive dressing, 2) Position in left lateral Trendelenburg, 3) Administer 100% oxygen, 4) Activate rapid response, and 5) Monitor and prepare for CPR.
In the event of a venous air embolism, the nurse must act immediately to prevent cardiovascular collapse. The first action is always source control: sealing the entry point (occlusive dressing) to prevent more air from entering. The second immediate action is positioning the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver), which uses gravity to trap the air in the apex of the right ventricle, away from the pulmonary valve. Third, administering 100% oxygen treats hypoxia and shrinks the nitrogen-rich air bubble. Only after these immediate, life-saving nursing actions are taken should the nurse leave the client's side to call the rapid response team and continue monitoring for cardiac arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Apply a sterile occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
Stops further entry of air into the venous system.
During inspiration, negative intrathoracic pressure can draw significant amounts of room air into an open central venous tract. Source control is the paramount first step.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air embolism in the right ventricle.
This specific positioning (Durant's maneuver) utilizes buoyancy. It keeps the air bubble away from the pulmonary valve, maintaining blood flow and preventing cardiovascular collapse.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Treats severe hypoxia and shrinks the air bubble.
Room air is primarily nitrogen. Providing 100% oxygen creates a concentration gradient that pulls nitrogen out of the air bubble and into the bloodstream to be exhaled, reducing the bubble's size.
4
Activate the rapid response team and notify the healthcare provider.
Secures advanced medical intervention.
After immediate life-saving nursing actions are completed, emergency medical support is required for further stabilization and potential diagnostic procedures.
5
Continuously monitor vital signs and prepare for resuscitation.
Ensures readiness for acute decompensation.
The client is at extreme risk for obstructive shock and cardiac arrest. Continuous monitoring allows for immediate recognition of deterioration.

Key Concept

Venous Air Embolism Emergency Management (Durant's Maneuver)
Question 151Question →

The charge nurse is rounding on a medical-surgical unit. Which observation of client care requires the charge nurse to intervene immediately to reduce the risk of a severe physiological complication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client who had a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) earlier in the day and is currently resting in bed with the right leg internally rotated.

Answer

The observation requiring immediate intervention is the client with a right total hip arthroplasty resting with the right leg internally rotated.
Following a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach, the client is at a highly elevated risk for prosthesis dislocation. To reduce this risk, the hip must be maintained in a state of abduction and neutral alignment. Internal rotation, adduction across the midline, and flexion past 90∘90^\circ are strictly contraindicated. The charge nurse must intervene immediately to reposition the leg, typically utilizing an abductor pillow, to prevent a severe physiological complication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client with the total hip arthroplasty.
The leg is internally rotated.
Following a posterior approach, adduction and internal rotation dramatically increase the risk of the femoral head popping out of the acetabulum (dislocation).
2
Evaluate the client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD).
Legs are positioned dependently.
Dependent positioning uses gravity to enhance arterial blood flow to oxygen-starved tissues in PAD. This is a therapeutic position.
3
Assess the client with severe emphysema.
Oxygen saturation is 89%89\%.
Clients with chronic hypercapnia rely on mild hypoxemia to drive their respiratory effort. A saturation of 88%88\% to 92%92\% is the expected and safe target.
4
Review the abdominal assessment sequence.
Auscultation is performed for 5 minutes5\text{ minutes} before palpation.
Palpating before auscultating can stimulate peristalsis and create false bowel sounds. Listening for 5 minutes5\text{ minutes} is required to confirm an ileus.

Key Concept

Prevention of post-operative joint dislocation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 152Question →

A nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. The procedure requires lowering the head of the bed to a supine position. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the nurse to take to ensure client safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the continuous enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to pause the continuous enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.
Pausing the continuous enteral feeding is the critical safety intervention before lowering the head of the bed. Standard nursing practice mandates that the head of the bed must remain elevated at 30 to 45 degrees during continuous enteral feeding to minimize the risk of aspiration pneumonia. If the bed must be lowered flat for hygiene care, turning, or repositioning, the feeding must be paused until the client's head can be safely elevated again.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risk associated with the procedure.
Lowering the head of the bed for a bed bath in a client receiving continuous enteral nutrition creates a high risk for pulmonary aspiration.
Enteral formula can easily reflux into the esophagus and enter the lungs if the client is not appropriately elevated at an angle of at least 30 to 45 degrees.
2
Determine the necessary nursing intervention to mitigate the risk.
The nurse must stop the flow of the enteral feeding.
Pausing the pump temporarily eliminates the introduction of new formula into the stomach while the client is flat, effectively protecting the airway during the bath.

Key Concept

Aspiration Precautions during Enteral Feeding
Question 153Question →

A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of regular insulin. Which nursing interventions are appropriate when managing this parenteral therapy? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prime the intravenous tubing with a portion of the insulin solution prior to connecting it to the client.; Add a 5% dextrose solution to the continuous intravenous fluids when the client's blood glucose level falls to 250 mg/dL250 \text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9 \text{ mmol/L}).; Monitor serum potassium levels frequently and anticipate potassium replacement even if the initial level is within normal limits.

Answer

The appropriate interventions include priming the tubing with insulin solution, adding dextrose to IV fluids when glucose drops to 250 mg/dL250 \text{ mg/dL}, and closely monitoring and replacing serum potassium.
Regular insulin is a high-alert medication requiring specific parenteral safeguards. Priming the plastic tubing with the insulin mixture is mandatory because insulin adsorbs to polyvinyl chloride; failing to prime can lead to subtherapeutic delivery. Adding a dextrose-containing solution when the blood glucose falls to approximately 250 mg/dL250 \text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9 \text{ mmol/L}) is a standard protocol to prevent hypoglycemia while allowing the insulin to continue suppressing ketone production. Additionally, because insulin facilitates the transport of potassium into cells, serum potassium levels will drop rapidly. The nurse must proactively monitor and replace potassium to prevent fatal dysrhythmias, even if the baseline potassium is normal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physical properties of regular insulin in an intravenous delivery system.
Insulin molecules bind to plastic tubing.
Saturating the tubing by priming it with the insulin solution prevents initial underdosing.
2
Evaluate the physiological effects of continuous intravenous insulin on electrolytes and glucose.
Insulin lowers blood glucose rapidly and shifts potassium intracellularly.
This necessitates the proactive addition of dextrose at 250 mg/dL250 \text{ mg/dL} to prevent hypoglycemia and requires strict potassium monitoring to prevent dysrhythmias.
3
Assess safety and compatibility requirements for high-risk parenteral therapies.
Insulin requires a dedicated intravenous line and is dosed based on actual body weight.
Using a dedicated line prevents incompatibility and accidental boluses, while actual body weight calculations ensure the dose is sufficient to reverse ketoacidosis.

Key Concept

Management and safety principles of continuous intravenous insulin therapy
Question 154Question →

While monitoring a client 6 hours after an open cholecystectomy, the nurse notes several subtle physiological changes and suspects the development of early (compensatory) hypovolemic shock due to internal bleeding. Which of the following assessment findings support this physiological adaptation? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Blood pressure changing from 124/76 mm Hg to 118/84 mm Hg; Sudden onset of restlessness and apprehension; Respiratory rate increasing from 14 to 26 breaths per minute

Answer

The correct findings are a narrowing pulse pressure (blood pressure changing to 118/84 mm Hg), a sudden onset of restlessness and apprehension, and an increased respiratory rate (from 14 to 26 breaths per minute).
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system and endocrine pathways to maintain cardiac output and vital organ perfusion. This physiologic adaptation leads to peripheral vasoconstriction, which increases diastolic blood pressure and narrows the pulse pressure before the systolic pressure definitively falls. Additionally, mild hypoxia to the brain presents initially as behavioral changes, such as restlessness, anxiety, or apprehension. The respiratory rate also increases (tachypnea) as a compensatory attempt to improve oxygen saturation and correct developing tissue hypoxia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the stage of shock described in the scenario.
The scenario asks for signs of the 'early (compensatory)' stage of hypovolemic shock.
Different stages of shock present with vastly different vital signs; early shock involves active physiological compensation, whereas late shock involves systemic failure.
2
Analyze the body's compensatory mechanisms during this early stage.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction (raising diastolic BP), and hyperventilation (increasing respiratory rate).
These mechanisms attempt to maintain cardiac output and deliver oxygen to vital organs despite volume loss.
3
Evaluate the clinical findings against expected compensatory responses.
Restlessness (early cerebral hypoxia), narrowed pulse pressure (vasoconstriction), and tachypnea align with compensation. Hypotension, bradycardia, or normal urine output do not.
Overt hypotension or altered sensorium (lethargy/coma) are late signs. Normal urine output contradicts the expected RAAS-mediated fluid retention.

Key Concept

Clinical Indicators of Compensatory Shock
Question 155Question →

A client with acute kidney injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The client's serum potassium level is 7.57.5 mEq/L (7.57.5 mmol/L), and the bedside cardiac monitor shows a widened QRS complex with tall, peaked T waves. The healthcare provider prescribes several interventions. In what order should the nurse execute these actions? Arrange the sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first administer intravenous calcium gluconate, followed by intravenous regular insulin and 50%50\% dextrose, then auscultate for bowel sounds, administer oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate, and finally draw a venous blood sample for reassessment.
The management of severe hyperkalemia with electrocardiographic changes follows a strict physiological priority to prevent cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is administered first to immediately stabilize the cardiac membrane. Next, regular insulin and dextrose rapidly shift potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space. Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate for permanent potassium removal, the nurse must assess for bowel sounds to prevent intestinal necrosis. Finally, a repeat blood draw evaluates the effectiveness of these sequential interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize life-threatening hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity and administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
The cardiac membrane is stabilized.
Widened QRS complexes indicate an imminent risk of ventricular fibrillation. Calcium immediately antagonizes the cardiac toxicity of hyperkalemia without actually lowering the potassium level.
2
Administer intravenous regular insulin and 50%50\% dextrose.
Potassium is shifted temporarily into the intracellular space.
This is the fastest method (acting within 1515 to 3030 minutes) to reduce circulating serum potassium levels and further protect the heart.
3
Auscultate the abdomen for bowel sounds.
Gastrointestinal motility is confirmed.
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate can cause fatal colonic necrosis if administered to a client with a paralytic ileus. Bowel function must be verified first.
4
Administer oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
Potassium binds in the gastrointestinal tract for excretion.
This provides a permanent reduction in total body potassium, though it takes several hours to become effective.
5
Draw a venous blood sample for a repeat basic metabolic panel.
The client's response to therapy is evaluated.
Laboratory reassessment must be performed after interventions have had adequate time to alter the serum potassium concentration.

Key Concept

Prioritization of severe hyperkalemia management follows a specific physiological sequence: stabilize the myocardium, shift potassium intracellularly, remove potassium from the body, and evaluate therapy.
Question 156Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who sustained multiple injuries in a motor vehicle crash and is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as early indicators of the compensatory stage of shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Restlessness and anxiety; Heart rate of 115 beats per minute; Narrowing pulse pressure

Answer

The early compensatory indicators of hypovolemic shock include restlessness and anxiety, a heart rate of 115 beats per minute, and a narrowing pulse pressure.
In the early, compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain cardiac output and oxygen delivery to vital organs. This response causes an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and peripheral vasoconstriction, which leads to a narrowing pulse pressure (because the diastolic pressure rises while the systolic pressure remains stable). Additionally, early cerebral hypoxia and sympathetic stimulation cause neurological changes such as restlessness, apprehension, and anxiety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical condition and stage being assessed.
The client is at risk for hypovolemic shock, and the question specifically asks for early (compensatory) signs.
Differentiating between early and late signs of shock is crucial for timely and life-saving interventions.
2
Analyze the physiological changes that occur during the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, and shunting of blood to vital organs, while mild hypoxia begins to affect the brain.
Understanding the underlying compensatory mechanism helps predict the clinical manifestations.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected physiological response.
Restlessness, tachycardia, and narrowing pulse pressure align perfectly with early compensation. Hypotension and warm skin represent either late shock or a completely different type of shock.
Each option must be systematically verified to correctly select all applicable manifestations.

Key Concept

During the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, sympathetic nervous system activation causes tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, and neurological changes like restlessness to maintain blood pressure and vital organ perfusion.
Question 157Question →

A critically ill client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of norepinephrine for the management of severe septic shock. The client's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is currently maintained at 68 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas results reveal severe metabolic acidosis, and the healthcare provider prescribes a stat intravenous bolus of sodium bicarbonate. The client currently has a single-lumen central venous catheter and no peripheral IV access. Which action by the nurse represents the safest and most appropriate clinical judgment?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a large-bore peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the sodium bicarbonate bolus independently

Answer

Establish a large-bore peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the sodium bicarbonate bolus independently.
The correct action is to establish a new peripheral intravenous line. Norepinephrine is a life-sustaining vasopressor; pausing the infusion in a client with septic shock will likely cause an immediate, profound drop in blood pressure. Furthermore, sodium bicarbonate is highly alkaline and physically incompatible with catecholamines like norepinephrine. Mixing them at a Y-site or in the same line causes the norepinephrine to be inactivated and can lead to dangerous precipitation. Because the client only has a single-lumen central line, the safest action is to rapidly secure separate peripheral IV access to administer the incompatible stat medication without interrupting continuous hemodynamic support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current hemodynamic status and continuous therapies.
The client is in severe septic shock and strictly dependent on a continuous norepinephrine infusion to maintain a marginal MAP of 68 mm Hg.
Understanding the critical nature of the continuous infusion establishes that it cannot be safely interrupted.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medication and its compatibility with the current continuous infusion.
Sodium bicarbonate is strongly alkaline and is physically incompatible with norepinephrine (a catecholamine).
Mixing these medications causes rapid inactivation of the vasopressor and precipitation within the IV tubing.
3
Determine the safest administration route given the client's current venous access limitations.
Since the client only has a single-lumen central line and the medications cannot be mixed or the primary infusion paused, a new venous access must be rapidly established.
A separate peripheral line allows for the immediate, safe administration of the stat sodium bicarbonate bolus without compromising the client's hemodynamic stability.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Hemodynamic Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 158Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client with right-sided weakness from the bed to a wheelchair. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: Position the wheelchair on the strong side and lock wheels, assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed, apply a transfer belt, face the client and brace the weak knee, and finally instruct the client to push off and pivot using their strong side.
Safe transfer of a client with unilateral weakness requires a systematic approach that maximizes the use of the client's strong side while providing structural support to the weak side. The sequence begins with environmental preparation (placing the chair on the strong left side and locking wheels), followed by positioning the client safely on the bed edge. A gait belt is then applied for safety, and the nurse assumes a stance that supports the weak right leg. Finally, the physical pivot is executed using the strong side.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the optimal placement for the wheelchair.
The wheelchair is placed on the client's left (unaffected) side at a 45-degree angle with wheels locked.
Always transfer toward the strong side so the client can bear weight and pivot safely without collapsing.
2
Mobilize the client to a ready position.
The client sits on the edge of the bed with feet flat on the floor.
Sitting on the edge allows the client to stabilize physically and prevents orthostatic hypotension before standing.
3
Secure safety equipment.
A transfer belt is applied securely around the client's waist.
The belt provides a firm handhold for the nurse, significantly reducing the risk of dropping or injuring the client.
4
Establish a supportive stance.
The nurse faces the client, holds the belt, and braces the client's weak right knee with their own knee.
Bracing the affected knee prevents it from buckling when the client attempts to bear weight during the transfer.
5
Execute the transfer.
The client pushes off the bed, stands, pivots on the left leg, and gently sits in the wheelchair.
Using the strong arm and leg maximizes the client's independence and safety during the pivoting motion.

Key Concept

Safe client transfer techniques prioritizing weight-bearing on the unaffected side and proper use of safety equipment.
Question 159Question →

A 72-year-old client with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the progressive care unit with a respiratory infection. The client is lethargic and confused. Vital signs are: blood pressure 86/52 mmHg, heart rate 122 beats/min, respiratory rate 32 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 83% on room air. The arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: pH 7.25, PaCO2 68 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L, and PaO2 50 mmHg. To reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position to maximize diaphragmatic excursion.; Prepare the client for immediate initiation of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV).; Establish large-bore intravenous access to facilitate rapid crystalloid fluid resuscitation.

Answer

The correct actions are elevating the head of the bed, preparing for noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, and establishing large-bore intravenous access.
The client is experiencing acute respiratory failure, evidenced by partially compensated respiratory acidosis and severe hypoxemia, alongside early signs of shock indicated by hypotension and tachycardia. To reduce the risk of physiological collapse, the nurse must immediately address the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). Elevating the head of the bed maximizes chest expansion and gas exchange. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) is indicated to improve oxygenation and reduce carbon dioxide levels. Establishing large-bore intravenous access is critical for rapid fluid resuscitation to manage hypovolemia and improve systemic perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and vital signs to determine the client's current physiological state.
The ABGs indicate partially compensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia. Vital signs reveal hypotension and tachycardia, indicating early shock.
Accurate interpretation of clinical data is necessary to identify life-threatening conditions and prioritize interventions.
2
Prioritize interventions based on the Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) framework.
Respiratory support and hemodynamic stabilization are identified as the highest priorities.
Addressing the ABCs immediately reduces the risk of cardiopulmonary arrest.
3
Select the specific evidence-based interventions that mitigate the identified risks without causing further harm.
Elevating the head of the bed, initiating noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, and establishing large-bore IV access are selected.
These actions directly correct hypoxia, assist ventilation, and restore intravascular volume while avoiding contraindicated positions or medications.

Key Concept

Risk Reduction in Acute Cardiopulmonary Decompensation
Question 160Question →

A registered nurse is developing a care plan for an older adult client who is recovering from a recent cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and has been diagnosed with new-onset dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's mealtime plan of care?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Instruct the client to gently tilt their chin downward toward their chest when swallowing each bite of food.

Answer

Instruct the client to gently tilt their chin downward toward their chest when swallowing each bite of food.
The correct answer provides an evidence-based intervention to prevent aspiration. The chin-tuck maneuver (flexing the neck) mechanically narrows the airway opening and widens the esophageal opening, making it easier and safer for the client to swallow without aspirating food or liquids into the lungs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is an older adult with a recent stroke and new-onset dysphagia.
Identifying the neurological deficit highlights the client's high risk for aspiration during oral intake.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against evidence-based safety guidelines for dysphagia.
Positioning at 30 degrees, delegating the initial assessment, and ignoring symptoms as 'normal aging' all severely compromise client safety and violate core nursing principles.
Aspiration precautions mandate upright positioning (90 degrees), RN-level assessment for initial feedings, and active recognition of pathology.
3
Select the appropriate therapeutic intervention.
Teaching the client the chin-tuck maneuver is identified as the correct nursing action.
This specific technique anatomically protects the airway during the swallowing phase, directly promoting basic care and comfort.

Key Concept

Dysphagia Management and Aspiration Precautions
PreviousPage 8 / 98Next
Physiological Integrity Practice Questions — NCLEX-RN — Page 8 | Examkin