Physiological Integrity

1960 questions

Question 1621Question →

A nurse evaluates a client experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation. Upon admission, the client was visibly struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute, and an initial arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis showed a PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg. Two hours later, the client's respiratory rate has decreased to 16 breaths per minute, and breath sounds are significantly diminished bilaterally. A repeat ABG reveals a pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 43 mm Hg, PaO2 of 59 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Activate the rapid response team and gather equipment for advanced airway management.

Answer

Activate the rapid response team and gather equipment for advanced airway management.
In a severe asthma exacerbation, clients initially hyperventilate, blowing off CO2 and causing respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). If the client tires, the respiratory rate drops, and PaCO2 begins to rise back into the 'normal' range (35-45 mm Hg). In the context of diminished breath sounds (a 'silent chest') and persistent hypoxemia, this 'pseudonormalization' of PaCO2 is a critical sign of respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory failure. Immediate intervention with advanced airway management is required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's initial presentation.
The client presented with hyperventilation (respiratory rate of 38/min) causing a rapid blow-off of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg), which is an expected early compensatory mechanism in severe asthma.
Establishing the baseline helps identify subsequent clinical deterioration or improvement.
2
Evaluate the clinical changes observed after two hours.
The respiratory rate has decreased to a 'normal' 16/min, and breath sounds are now significantly diminished (silent chest).
Clinical assessment often reveals deterioration before laboratory values confirm it. A 'silent chest' indicates severe airflow obstruction.
3
Interpret the repeat arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical assessment.
The PaCO2 has risen to 43 mm Hg (within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg), and hypoxemia persists (PaO2 59 mm Hg).
ABG values must always be interpreted alongside the client's physical presentation. A normal PaCO2 is an alarming finding in an actively wheezing or severely asthmatic client.
4
Determine the physiological state and the priority nursing intervention.
The normalization of PaCO2 (pseudonormalization) combined with decreased respiratory effort signifies severe respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory arrest, requiring immediate rapid response and intubation.
Delaying advanced airway management in the presence of impending ventilatory failure will lead to cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

Impending Respiratory Failure and Pseudonormalization of ABGs
Question 1622Question →

A nurse enters the room of a client with a history of asthma. The client is using accessory muscles to breathe, has audible wheezing, and an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the actions in order of priority from first to last.

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Answer

The priority sequence is to first maximize lung expansion via positioning, then treat the hypoxemia with oxygen, followed by administering a bronchodilator to relieve the spasm, and finally reassessing the client's response.
The correct sequence prioritizes airway and breathing according to emergency care principles. Elevating the head of the bed is the fastest physical action to improve lung expansion. This is immediately followed by supplemental oxygen to correct the severe hypoxemia. Once the patient is oxygenated, the nurse administers the bronchodilator to treat the underlying bronchospasm. Finally, the nurse reassesses the client to evaluate the effectiveness of these interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
Immediate improvement in diaphragmatic excursion.
This is the fastest, least invasive independent action to reduce the work of breathing.
2
Apply supplemental oxygen as prescribed.
Correction of the severe hypoxemia.
Oxygen addresses the immediate life-threatening issue of impaired gas exchange.
3
Administer the prescribed short-acting inhaled bronchodilator.
Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle.
This treats the underlying pathophysiology of the acute asthma exacerbation.
4
Reassess the client's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.
Determination of treatment efficacy.
Evaluation is necessary to see if the interventions worked or if further escalation is needed.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care in Acute Respiratory Distress
Question 1623Question →

Following a subtotal thyroidectomy to treat hyperthyroidism, a client is transferred to the surgical unit for continuous monitoring. The nursing staff is actively observing for potential procedural complications. Which specific assessment findings should prompt the nurse to initiate emergency interventions? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Audible high-pitched respiratory sounds during inspiration; Repeated swallowing while the client is resting quietly in bed; A new onset of numbness and tingling around the mouth

Answer

The assessment findings that require immediate intervention are the audible high-pitched respiratory sounds (stridor), repeated swallowing, and new onset of numbness and tingling around the mouth.
Following a thyroidectomy, clients are at high risk for three major complications: airway obstruction, hemorrhage, and hypocalcemia. High-pitched respiratory sounds (stridor) indicate impending airway collapse. Repeated swallowing suggests blood pooling in the throat from an active internal bleed. Perioral tingling is an early neurological sign of hypocalcemia due to parathyroid gland trauma. All of these findings indicate physiological decompensation and require immediate emergency interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's surgical history and postoperative timeframe.
The client had a subtotal thyroidectomy and is in the acute recovery phase.
Identifying the specific surgery helps anticipate the most common and life-threatening physiological complications, which include airway compromise, bleeding, and hypocalcemia.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings against potential airway and breathing emergencies.
High-pitched respiratory sounds (stridor) indicate acute airway obstruction.
The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) must be prioritized. Stridor is a medical emergency requiring immediate airway management.
3
Assess the clinical findings for signs of hemorrhage or circulation issues.
Repeated swallowing indicates internal bleeding.
Internal bleeding in the neck can cause blood to pool in the pharynx, leading to continuous swallowing, and can rapidly cause external compression on the trachea.
4
Review the neurological and laboratory data for metabolic complications.
Perioral numbness indicates impending hypocalcemia, while the calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL is normal.
The parathyroid glands may be damaged during thyroid surgery, leading to hypocalcemia (tetany), which presents early as tingling around the mouth. Normal lab values do not require intervention.

Key Concept

Postoperative Complications of Thyroidectomy
Question 1624Question →

A client arrives at the urgent care clinic visibly distressed, reporting severe anxiety following a minor vehicle collision. The nurse observes a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute. The client states, "I feel dizzy and my fingers are tingling." Based on these assessment findings, which physiological imbalance is the client most likely experiencing?

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Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

Answer

Respiratory alkalosis
The client is exhibiting tachypnea (36 breaths per minute) secondary to severe anxiety, which leads to excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide (CO2). The loss of CO2, an acidic gas, results in a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in blood pH, causing respiratory alkalosis. Furthermore, alkalosis causes a temporary decrease in ionized calcium, leading to the classic symptom of tingling in the extremities (paresthesia), while the low CO2 causes cerebral vasoconstriction, resulting in dizziness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and respiratory pattern.
The client has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute (tachypnea/hyperventilation).
Identifying the primary physiological change helps determine the resulting acid-base shift.
2
Determine the physiological consequence of hyperventilation.
Rapid, deep breathing causes the lungs to blow off excessive amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2).
CO2 acts as an acid in the body; losing it shifts the blood pH toward an alkaline state.
3
Correlate the client's subjective symptoms with the physiological change.
Dizziness and tingling in the extremities (paresthesia) are classic clinical manifestations of a decreased CO2 level.
Alkalosis causes cerebral vasoconstriction (leading to dizziness) and decreases ionized calcium levels (leading to tingling).

Key Concept

Acid-Base Imbalances: Respiratory Alkalosis
Question 1625Question →

A nurse is assessing a client on postoperative day 3 following an abdominal laparotomy. The client experiences a sudden, forceful episode of coughing, and the nurse observes loops of intestine protruding through the surgical incision. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence of priority.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is: 1) Call for immediate assistance while remaining at the bedside, 2) Position the client in low Fowler's with knees flexed, 3) Cover the wound with sterile saline-soaked dressings, 4) Assess vital signs, and 5) Prepare the client for surgery.
Wound evisceration is a surgical emergency requiring immediate and prioritized action. The nurse must first ensure safety by calling for help while staying with the client. Second, positioning the client in low Fowler's with flexed knees reduces abdominal tension. Third, the exposed bowel must be immediately protected from drying and necrosis with sterile, saline-soaked dressings. Fourth, vital signs are assessed to monitor for the onset of hypovolemic shock. Finally, the nurse prepares the client for definitive surgical repair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the medical emergency (wound evisceration) and secure help.
Additional staff are mobilized without leaving the client unattended.
Evisceration is a life-threatening emergency requiring rapid intervention and surgical repair. The primary nurse must stay to protect the organs while others contact the surgeon.
2
Minimize further damage by positioning the client.
The client is placed in low Fowler's position with knees bent.
This position relaxes the abdominal muscles, reducing intra-abdominal pressure and preventing more bowel from protruding.
3
Protect the exposed tissues.
The bowel is covered with sterile, saline-moistened dressings.
Exposed viscera will quickly dry and become necrotic. A sterile, moist environment is critical for tissue preservation until surgery.
4
Evaluate hemodynamic stability.
Vital signs are obtained to check for tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea.
Evisceration can cause severe fluid shifts and hypovolemic shock. Baseline vitals are needed to guide fluid resuscitation.
5
Facilitate definitive treatment.
The client is prepped for the operating room.
The only definitive treatment for an evisceration is surgical repair.

Key Concept

Management of Postoperative Wound Evisceration
Question 1626Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has left-sided hemiparesis from the hospital bed to a wheelchair. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to ensure a safe transfer? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with positioning the wheelchair on the client's strong side, followed by locking the brakes on both the bed and wheelchair. Next, the nurse assists the client to sit on the edge of the bed and applies a transfer belt. The nurse then braces the client's weak knee and foot, and finally instructs the client to push up with their strong arm to stand and pivot into the chair.
Safe mobility practices dictate a specific sequence to protect both the client and the nurse. The environment must be prepared first by placing the wheelchair on the client's unaffected side, which capitalizes on their functional strength. Locking the brakes immediately after positioning ensures the equipment will not slide. The client is then brought to a dangling position to establish balance, and a transfer belt is applied for a secure grip. Before the client attempts to bear weight, the nurse must brace the hemiparetic (weak) leg to prevent it from collapsing. Finally, the client is instructed to use their strong arm to push off the bed, utilizing their intact motor function to complete the pivot.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair on the right side.
The transfer destination is established on the client's functional side.
Transferring toward the strong side enables the client to bear weight safely and use their unaffected limbs for stability.
2
Lock all wheels.
The bed and wheelchair are immobilized.
Securing the equipment prevents unintended movement that could cause a fall during the transfer.
3
Assist to a sitting position and apply a transfer belt.
The client is upright, and the nurse has a secure grip point.
Dangling allows the client to equilibrate (preventing orthostatic hypotension), and the belt provides a safe handling method.
4
Brace the left knee and foot.
The client's weak leg is physically supported.
Hemiparesis increases the risk of the affected leg buckling; bracing it provides the necessary stability for standing.
5
Instruct the client to push up, stand, and pivot.
The client safely moves from the bed to the wheelchair.
Utilizing the client's upper body strength on the unaffected side promotes independence and minimizes the physical strain on the nurse.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer Principles for Hemiparesis
Question 1627Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T4 spinal cord injury. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and blurred vision. The nurse observes profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury, a blood pressure of 210/115 mmHg, and a heart rate of 48 beats/min. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence. (Place the most immediate priority action at the top.)

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions for a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia is: elevate the head of the bed, loosen restrictive clothing, assess for the trigger (bladder/bowel), administer antihypertensive medications if needed, and notify the healthcare provider.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by severe hypertension and bradycardia due to an exaggerated sympathetic response, usually triggered by a lower body stimulus in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The absolute first priority is to place the client in a sitting or high Fowler's position to utilize orthostatic hypotension to lower the blood pressure. Next, immediate external triggers (like tight clothing) are removed. The nurse then assesses for the most common internal triggers, such as bladder distention or a kinked catheter. If these conservative measures do not resolve the hypertensive crisis, antihypertensive medications are administered. Finally, the provider is notified.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical presentation as autonomic dysreflexia.
The combination of severe hypertension, bradycardia, headache, and diaphoresis in a client with a T4 spinal cord injury indicates a life-threatening sympathetic response.
Accurate and immediate recognition dictates the emergency management protocol.
2
Determine the most immediate action to mitigate the severe hypertension.
Elevating the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position uses gravity to induce orthostatic pooling, immediately lowering the blood pressure.
Preventing a cerebrovascular accident is the highest priority and positioning is the fastest intervention.
3
Sequence the subsequent interventions to remove the trigger and provide further treatment.
After positioning, the nurse must loosen restrictive clothing, then assess for the most common internal trigger (bladder issues). If unresolved, medications are given, followed by provider notification.
Trigger removal is the definitive treatment; medications are secondary if trigger removal fails or takes time.

Key Concept

Management of autonomic dysreflexia requires immediate intervention to lower blood pressure, primarily through positioning, followed by rapid identification and removal of the triggering stimulus.
Question 1628Question →

Following an extensive bowel resection with anastomosis, a client is recovering in the surgical step-down unit while receiving a continuous epidural infusion for analgesia. The client currently rates their pain as 2 out of 10 but exhibits increasing restlessness and anxiety. Current assessment findings include:

- Heart rate: 118 beats/minute
- Blood pressure: 106/82 mm Hg (preoperative baseline 128/78 mm Hg)
- Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/minute
- Arterial blood gases: pH 7.48, PaCO2PaCO_2 30 mm Hg, HCO3−HCO_3^- 23 mEq/L, PaO2PaO_2 85 mm Hg

Based on these clinical indicators, which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic intravenous fluids and immediately notify the surgical team.

Answer

Initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic intravenous fluids and immediately notify the surgical team.
The clinical picture demonstrates early compensatory hypovolemic shock, likely secondary to internal hemorrhage from the recent bowel anastomosis. The defining feature is the significantly narrowed pulse pressure (24 mm Hg), which occurs as the sympathetic nervous system causes systemic vasoconstriction to maintain central perfusion. This is accompanied by tachycardia, restlessness from early cerebral hypoxia, and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis due to tachypnea. Immediate isotonic fluid resuscitation and surgical notification are the most critical interventions to prevent irreversible physiological decompensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and compare them to the preoperative baseline.
The client is tachycardic (118 bpm) and tachypneic (26 breaths/min). The blood pressure shows a significantly narrowed pulse pressure (106−82=24106 - 82 = 24 mm Hg, compared to the baseline of 128−78=50128 - 78 = 50 mm Hg).
Identifying subtle trends in vital signs, particularly a narrowing pulse pressure, is crucial for distinguishing different etiologies of shock.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The pH is alkalotic (7.48), PaCO2PaCO_2 is low (30 mm Hg), and HCO3−HCO_3^- is normal (23 mEq/L), indicating uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
ABG interpretation helps determine if the client is experiencing a primary respiratory issue or a systemic compensatory response.
3
Synthesize the clinical findings to identify the underlying physiological process.
Restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea leading to respiratory alkalosis, and a narrowed pulse pressure collectively indicate early compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock rather than epidural-induced distributive shock.
In early hemorrhage, the sympathetic nervous system causes systemic vasoconstriction to maintain perfusion, which raises the diastolic pressure and narrows the pulse pressure.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The primary issue is a severe circulatory deficit (ABCs). The immediate action must be to restore intravascular volume with isotonic fluids and escalate care to the surgical team.
Prioritization must focus on addressing the root cause of the life-threatening circulatory collapse rather than treating secondary symptoms like anxiety or hyperventilation.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Compensatory Hypovolemic Shock
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1629Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure who is hemodynamically unstable. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone at 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 80 kg80 \text{ kg}. The pharmacy has supplied a premixed bag containing 20 mg20 \text{ mg} of milrinone in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose in Water5\% \text{ Dextrose in Water}. The client has a single peripheral intravenous catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of intravenous furosemide 40 mg40 \text{ mg} to treat pulmonary edema. Furosemide and milrinone are visually incompatible and will form a precipitate if mixed.

Which of the following actions is the highest priority for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Establish a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the stat dose of furosemide.

Answer

Establish a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the stat dose of furosemide.
Milrinone is a critical, continuous vasoactive medication (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor) used to support cardiac output in hemodynamically unstable clients. Pausing the infusion can lead to a rapid and life-threatening decline in blood pressure and cardiac output. Because furosemide and milrinone are incompatible and will precipitate if mixed in the same line, the nurse cannot run them together or pause the milrinone to flush the line. The only safe and correct action is to immediately start a second peripheral intravenous line to administer the furosemide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's hemodynamic status and the nature of the continuous infusion.
The patient is hemodynamically unstable and receiving milrinone, a critical life-sustaining vasoactive medication.
Vasoactive drips cannot be safely paused without risking severe cardiovascular collapse.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Milrinone and furosemide are physically incompatible and will precipitate if mixed in the same intravenous line.
Administering incompatible drugs through the same line risks forming a fatal embolus and losing IV access.
3
Determine the safest route for medication administration.
Because the milrinone cannot be paused and the line cannot be shared, a second intravenous access must be established.
Establishing a new line allows for the stat administration of furosemide while maintaining continuous hemodynamic support.

Key Concept

Management of Incompatible Intravenous Medications and Vasoactive Infusions
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1630Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) infusion of potassium chloride to a client diagnosed with severe hypokalemia. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to ensure safe administration? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Verify that the client's urine output is at least 30 mL/hr prior to initiating the infusion.; Assess the intravenous insertion site for pain, redness, or swelling at least hourly.; Utilize an electronic infusion pump to control the delivery rate of the medication.

Answer

The correct actions are to verify adequate urine output, assess the IV site frequently, and utilize an electronic infusion pump.
Safe administration of intravenous potassium chloride requires ensuring the client can clear it renally (urine output > 30 mL/hr), controlling the exact rate of infusion with an electronic pump to prevent cardiac arrhythmias, and closely monitoring the IV site because potassium is a severe tissue irritant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the safety protocols for the administration of high-alert parenteral medications like potassium chloride.
Identify that potassium has a narrow therapeutic margin and requires strict administrative controls.
Rapid or incorrect administration can lead to lethal cardiac arrhythmias.
2
Evaluate the requirement for pre-administration assessment.
Determine that renal function must be assessed.
Because potassium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, administering it to a client with oliguria can quickly cause severe hyperkalemia.
3
Determine the correct method and equipment for intravenous delivery.
Select an electronic infusion pump and frequent site monitoring as mandatory.
A pump prevents accidental rapid infusion (speed shock), and site monitoring prevents tissue damage since potassium is a known vesicant.

Key Concept

Safe Administration of Intravenous Potassium
Question 1631Question →

A client in the emergency department is receiving a rapid transfusion of multiple units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) following a severe pelvic fracture. During the transfusion of the fifth unit, the nurse observes prolonged QT intervals on the cardiac monitor, and the client reports new-onset tingling in their fingers and around their mouth. Which physiological complication should the nurse recognize based on these assessment findings?

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Answer: Citrate toxicity leading to a decreased serum ionized calcium level

Answer

The client is experiencing citrate toxicity leading to a decreased serum ionized calcium level.
The correct answer identifies that packed red blood cells contain citrate as a preservative to prevent coagulation. When multiple units are transfused rapidly, the liver cannot metabolize the citrate quickly enough. The excess citrate in the bloodstream binds with free ionized calcium, leading to acute hypocalcemia. Clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia include neuromuscular irritability (such as circumoral and extremity tingling) and cardiac conduction delays, most notably a prolonged QT interval.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current clinical presentation and recent medical interventions.
The client is receiving a rapid, massive transfusion of PRBCs and is developing new-onset circumoral tingling, finger numbness, and a prolonged QT interval.
Identifying the temporal relationship between a therapy (massive transfusion) and new symptoms is essential for recognizing unexpected physiological adaptations.
2
Correlate the specific assessment findings with physiological imbalances.
Neuromuscular irritability (tingling) and a prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram are classic hallmark signs of hypocalcemia.
Connecting specific cardiac and neuromuscular signs to their underlying electrolyte disturbance allows for accurate clinical judgment.
3
Link the identified electrolyte imbalance to the medical intervention.
The citrate preservative in stored PRBCs binds to the client's ionized calcium, resulting in clinically significant hypocalcemia when transfused rapidly.
Understanding the pharmacological components of blood products is necessary to anticipate and manage massive transfusion complications.

Key Concept

Massive blood transfusions can lead to acute hypocalcemia (citrate toxicity) because the citrate preservative added to stored blood binds with the client's serum ionized calcium. Nurses must monitor for signs of hypocalcemia, including neuromuscular irritability (tingling, Chvostek's/Trousseau's signs) and electrocardiogram changes such as prolonged QT intervals.
Question 1632Question →

An adult client is prescribed a 250 mL intermittent enteral feeding formula via an established nasogastric tube. To minimize the risk of procedural complications, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: position the head of the bed, verify tube placement, check gastric residual volume, flush the tube, and finally initiate the feeding.
Safe administration of enteral feedings requires a prioritized approach to minimize the risk of aspiration and misplacement complications. Elevating the head of the bed (at least 30 degrees) is the initial priority to physically protect the airway via gravity. Next, the nurse must verify the tube is in the stomach to ensure fluids will not be instilled into the lungs. Third, measuring the gastric residual volume evaluates the client's tolerance and prevents gastric overdistension. Fourth, flushing the tube maintains patency and clears the line. Finally, once all safety criteria are met, the feeding can be safely administered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate aspiration risk and adjust client positioning.
The head of the bed is elevated to at least 30 degrees.
This purely physical maneuver protects the airway utilizing gravity, making it the first required action before introducing any fluids or manipulating the tube.
2
Confirm anatomical location of the tube.
Gastric contents are aspirated and assessed.
Before using the tube, it is imperative to rule out pulmonary migration to prevent potentially fatal administration of fluids into the lungs.
3
Assess gastrointestinal function and tolerance.
Gastric residual volume is measured.
A high residual volume indicates delayed gastric emptying, which significantly increases aspiration risk if more volume is added.
4
Ensure tube patency.
The tube is flushed with water.
Flushing clears the line, preventing clogging and ensuring the formula has a clear pathway to the stomach.
5
Deliver nutrition.
The enteral formula is administered.
The intervention is safely completed once all risk-reduction parameters are met.

Key Concept

Reduction of risk potential during enteral feeding relies on a strict sequence of airway protection, placement verification, tolerance assessment, and maintaining tube patency.
Question 1633Question →

A nurse is assessing a client admitted 12 hours ago with an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The client suddenly reports feeling extremely apprehensive and restless.

Current clinical data:
- Blood pressure: 90/74 mmHg (decreased from 118/76 mmHg two hours ago)
- Heart rate: 116 beats/min
- Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
- Jugular venous distention is noted when the head of the bed is elevated to 45 degrees
- Lung fields are clear to auscultation bilaterally
- Urine output was 15 mL over the past hour

Based on these findings, which physiological complication should the nurse suspect the client is developing?

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Answer: Cardiac tamponade

Answer

The client is developing cardiac tamponade.
The correct answer is cardiac tamponade. The client is exhibiting a severely narrowed pulse pressure (90/74 = 16 mmHg), which is a hallmark sign of restricted ventricular filling. The presence of jugular venous distention indicates increased right-sided pressures, but the clear lung fields rule out left-sided failure (which would be expected in cardiogenic shock resulting from an anterior MI). Hypovolemic shock would present with flat, not distended, neck veins. While a right ventricular MI presents with similar signs, it is associated with inferior, not anterior, infarctions. The continuous heparin infusion places this client at high risk for a hemorrhagic pericardial effusion, precipitating cardiac tamponade.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital sign trends and calculate the pulse pressure.
The blood pressure dropped, but specifically, the pulse pressure narrowed severely from 42 mmHg (118 - 76) to 16 mmHg (90 - 74). The client is also tachycardic and tachypneic.
A severely narrowed pulse pressure is a hallmark sign of restricted ventricular filling and decreased stroke volume, combined with compensatory systemic vasoconstriction.
2
Evaluate the physical assessment findings in the context of the medical history.
The client has an anterior wall MI (left-sided injury) but is presenting with jugular venous distention (right-sided backup) and clear lung sounds (absence of left-sided backup).
Left-sided heart failure (common in anterior MI) would cause crackles/pulmonary edema. The presence of JVD with clear lungs indicates an obstructive or right-sided issue, rather than left-sided pump failure.
3
Synthesize the data to identify the specific shock state.
The combination of narrowed pulse pressure, JVD, clear lungs, and hypotension in a client receiving an anticoagulant (heparin) points to fluid compressing the heart.
The heparin infusion places the client at high risk for hemorrhagic pericarditis or free wall rupture leading to cardiac tamponade. The clinical picture perfectly aligns with Beck's triad (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds—though muffled sounds aren't explicitly listed, the other signs strongly indicate tamponade).

Key Concept

Differentiating obstructive shock (cardiac tamponade) from cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock using complex hemodynamic and physical assessment data.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 1634Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis who is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The client weighs 198 lb.

The hospital's weight-based heparin protocol includes the following instructions:

aPTT (seconds)Bolus DoseContinuous Infusion Adjustment
< 3580 units/kgIncrease by 4 units/kg/hr
35 - 4540 units/kgIncrease by 2 units/kg/hr
46 - 70NoneNo change
71 - 90NoneDecrease by 2 units/kg/hr
> 90Hold infusion for 1 hourDecrease by 3 units/kg/hr

The client's current heparin infusion is infusing at a rate of 15 units/kg/hr. The most recent aPTT result is 42 seconds. The available intravenous solution contains heparin 25,000 units in 250 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W).

What should the nurse set the new continuous intravenous infusion pump rate to, in mL/hr?

(Record your answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)

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Answer: 15.3

Answer

15.3
The correct pump setting is 15.3 mL/hr. First, the client's weight must be converted to kilograms: 198 lb / 2.2 = 90 kg. According to the protocol, an aPTT of 42 seconds falls into the 35-45 seconds tier, which dictates an increase of the continuous infusion by 2 units/kg/hr. The current running rate is 15 units/kg/hr, meaning the new ordered rate becomes 17 units/kg/hr (15 + 2). The total hourly dose is calculated by multiplying the new rate by the client's weight: 17 units/kg/hr * 90 kg = 1530 units/hr. The available concentration is 25,000 units in 250 mL, which simplifies to 100 units/mL. To find the final intravenous pump rate, divide the hourly dose by the concentration: 1530 units/hr / 100 units/mL = 15.3 mL/hr. This meets the rounding requirement of the nearest tenth.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds (lb) to kilograms (kg).
198 lb / 2.2 = 90 kg
Weight-based medication dosing requires the client's weight in kilograms to ensure accurate administration.
2
Determine the necessary infusion rate adjustment based on the aPTT result.
Increase by 2 units/kg/hr
The client's aPTT is 42 seconds, which falls into the 35-45 seconds protocol parameter requiring a specific upward titration.
3
Calculate the new weight-based hourly dose.
15 units/kg/hr + 2 units/kg/hr = 17 units/kg/hr
The current rate must be increased by the protocol-determined amount to achieve therapeutic coagulation levels.
4
Calculate the total units required per hour.
17 units/kg/hr * 90 kg = 1530 units/hr
Multiplying the new weight-based dose by the client's weight provides the absolute total units of heparin required each hour.
5
Calculate the volume of the infusion needed per hour.
1530 units/hr / 100 units/mL = 15.3 mL/hr
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration of the available solution (25,000 units / 250 mL = 100 units/mL) provides the final pump setting.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Continuous Intravenous Medication Titration
Question 1635Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client who has a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client's most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 62 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 34 mEq/L. Which of the following conclusions should the nurse draw regarding the client's physiological state based on these findings? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: The client is in a state of respiratory acidosis.; The kidneys are actively retaining bicarbonate to buffer the blood.

Answer

The correct conclusions are that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis and that the kidneys are retaining bicarbonate as a compensatory mechanism.
The client's pH of 7.31 reflects an acidotic state. The elevated PaCO2 of 62 mm Hg points to a respiratory cause, defining the condition as respiratory acidosis. The kidneys are responding to this by holding onto bicarbonate, as evidenced by the elevated HCO3- of 34 mEq/L, which is the expected physiological adaptation to buffer the excess acid.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the blood pH level.
The pH is 7.31.
A normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidemia, establishing the presence of an acidosis.
2
Analyze the PaCO2 level to determine if the cause is respiratory.
The PaCO2 is 62 mm Hg.
A normal PaCO2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. An elevated PaCO2 in the presence of acidemia confirms that the primary disorder is respiratory acidosis.
3
Analyze the HCO3- level to identify any compensatory response.
The HCO3- is 34 mEq/L.
A normal HCO3- is 22 to 26 mEq/L. An elevated bicarbonate level demonstrates a metabolic compensatory response, where the kidneys retain base to counteract the respiratory acid.
4
Evaluate the state of compensation.
The acid-base imbalance is partially compensated.
Although the kidneys are actively retaining bicarbonate, the pH has not yet returned to the normal range.

Key Concept

Interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) values and recognition of physiological compensatory mechanisms in acid-base imbalances.
Question 1636Question →

A registered nurse is preparing to collect a routine laboratory blood specimen from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). Arrange the steps for this procedure in the correct chronological order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: pause active infusions, flush the line to verify patency, discard a waste sample of blood, collect the required specimen, and perform a final thorough flush.
Obtaining blood from a central venous catheter requires a strict sequence to ensure accurate laboratory results and maintain line patency. Infusions must be stopped first to prevent sample contamination. The line is then flushed to confirm patency. A waste sample must be discarded to clear the line's dead space of flush solution. After the true sample is collected, a vigorous final flush is mandatory to clear all blood from the lumen and prevent catheter clotting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause continuous IV infusions.
Prevents medication or fluids from mixing with the blood sample.
Drawing blood while fluids are actively infusing will yield falsely elevated or altered laboratory results corresponding to the infused substances.
2
Clean the hub and flush with normal saline.
Ensures catheter patency.
Confirming the line is open and functioning prevents complications during the blood draw process and maintains sterility.
3
Draw and discard a waste blood sample.
Removes the saline flush and any residual medication from the catheter.
The 'dead space' in the catheter contains fluid that would dilute or alter the laboratory specimen if not discarded first.
4
Collect the blood specimen.
Obtains pure, undiluted blood for testing.
This sample accurately reflects the client's true systemic blood values.
5
Perform a final flush with 10 to 20 mL of normal saline.
Clears all blood from the catheter lumen.
Blood left sitting in the catheter can quickly clot, leading to partial or complete occlusion of the central line.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter Blood Specimen Collection
Question 1637Question →

A nurse is admitting a client who has just returned to the clinical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. As part of the care plan to ensure optimal comfort and minimize post-procedure complications, which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

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Answer: Assist the client into a right side-lying position with a folded towel under the puncture site.

Answer

The nurse should assist the client into a right side-lying position with a folded towel placed under the puncture site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client must be positioned on their right side (right lateral decubitus) for at least 2 hours. This positioning utilizes the body's weight to apply direct, external pressure to the liver capsule at the biopsy site, significantly reducing the risk of internal hemorrhage and providing physical support to the area for comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risks associated with the procedure.
A percutaneous liver biopsy involves puncturing the highly vascular liver, making hemorrhage the most significant immediate post-procedure risk.
Understanding anatomical risks determines the necessary nursing interventions for safety and basic care.
2
Determine the optimal positioning to mitigate these risks and provide comfort.
Positioning the client on their right side applies external mechanical pressure directly to the liver capsule and biopsy site.
Direct pressure promotes hemostasis at the puncture site and stabilizes the area to improve overall client comfort.
3
Evaluate other potential actions for safety, scope of practice, and appropriateness.
Assessments cannot be delegated immediately post-procedure, restraints are not indicated for mild restlessness, and high-Fowler's position removes necessary pressure from the site.
Ensuring the chosen action is both within the RN's scope of practice and physiologically sound is required for safe care.

Key Concept

Post-Procedure Positioning and Hemostasis
Question 1638Question →

A nurse is evaluating a 72-year-old client who is 48 hours post-operative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair. The client is receiving a continuous epidural infusion for pain management. The nurse obtains the following assessment data:

- Neurological: Restless, repeatedly asking for water
- Cardiovascular: Heart rate 118 bpm, Blood pressure 102/76 mmHg (baseline 138/84 mmHg), weak peripheral pulses
- Respiratory: Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min, shallow
- Renal: Urine output 15 mL over the past hour via indwelling catheter (previous output 45 mL/hr)
- ABG (Room Air): pH 7.49, PaCO2 29 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L, PaO2 68 mmHg

Based on the assessment data, which of the following conclusions regarding the client's physiological status are correct? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The arterial blood gas results indicate an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis driven by early tissue hypoxia.; The narrowing pulse pressure reflects a compensatory sympathetic nervous system response to decreased stroke volume.; The client's restlessness and intense thirst are early clinical manifestations of decreased cerebral perfusion and intravascular volume depletion.

Answer

The correct conclusions are that the ABG shows uncompensated respiratory alkalosis driven by hypoxia, the narrowing pulse pressure indicates a sympathetic compensatory response, and the restlessness/thirst represent early signs of decreased perfusion and volume depletion.
The correct conclusions accurately synthesize multiple data points to identify the compensatory stage of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock. The narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia reflect sympathetic nervous system activation attempting to maintain cardiac output. The restlessness and intense thirst are classic early indicators of decreased cerebral perfusion and intravascular volume loss. Finally, the ABG values definitively show uncompensated respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.49, PaCO2 29, normal HCO3) which occurs as the patient hyperventilates in response to hypoxemia (PaO2 68).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the cardiovascular data, specifically calculating the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) and pulse pressure.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 54 mmHg to 26 mmHg, and the MAP is maintained at ~84 mmHg despite tachycardia and a drop in systolic pressure.
Calculating these values differentiates between the compensatory stage of shock (maintained MAP, narrow pulse pressure) and progressive/refractory stages.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results in the context of the client's respiratory rate.
The ABG reveals pH 7.49 (alkalemia), PaCO2 29 (respiratory), HCO3 22 (uncompensated), and PaO2 68 (hypoxemia).
Understanding the acid-base balance confirms that the client is hyperventilating to compensate for tissue hypoxia, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
3
Evaluate the localized vs. systemic nature of the decreased urine output and neurological changes.
The oliguria is systemic (due to renal hypoperfusion), as the indwelling catheter rules out epidural-induced retention. The restlessness and thirst represent decreased cerebral perfusion and hypovolemia.
Accurately attributing symptoms to systemic hypoperfusion rather than isolated post-operative complications is essential for early shock recognition.

Key Concept

Early recognition of compensatory shock mechanisms and complex ABG interpretation.
Question 1639Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department with severe respiratory depression following an opioid overdose. The client's respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute. Which primary acid-base imbalance should the nurse anticipate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Respiratory acidosis

Answer

Respiratory acidosis
A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates significant hypoventilation. This leads to the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. Because CO2 acts as an acid in the body, its accumulation causes the blood pH to drop, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological consequence of a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.
The client is hypoventilating, leading to inadequate gas exchange.
To determine how the altered respiratory pattern affects carbon dioxide elimination.
2
Determine the effect of hypoventilation on carbon dioxide levels.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is retained in the blood instead of being exhaled.
CO2 levels dictate the respiratory component of the body's acid-base balance.
3
Correlate CO2 retention with the correct acid-base imbalance.
Increased CO2 lowers blood pH, causing an acidic environment driven by the respiratory system.
To identify the anticipated arterial blood gas abnormality.

Key Concept

Acid-base imbalance secondary to hypoventilation
Question 1640Question →

During a routine tubing replacement for a continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion, a client's central venous catheter (CVC) accidentally disconnects at the hub. The client immediately exhibits air hunger, profound cyanosis, and reports sharp, severe chest pain. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals a sudden tachycardic rate of 135 beats/min135 \text{ beats/min} and a blood pressure plummeting to 82/48 mmHg82/48 \text{ mmHg}. Which action should the nurse execute first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Clamp the catheter and position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.

Answer

Clamp the catheter and position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The clinical presentation strongly indicates a venous air embolism, a life-threatening complication of central venous catheters. The immediate priority is to stop further air from entering the circulatory system by clamping the open catheter. Following this, the client must be placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position (on their left side with the head lower than the feet). This specific position utilizes gravity to trap the air bubble in the apex of the right atrium and right ventricle, preventing it from migrating into the pulmonary artery and causing right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of a venous air embolism (air hunger, chest pain, hypotension, cyanosis) following a central venous catheter disconnection.
Accurate recognition of the complication is the foundational step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine the physiological goal of intervention.
The immediate goal is to prevent additional air from entering the vascular space and to trap the existing air away from the pulmonary outflow tract.
If the air embolus enters the pulmonary circulation, it will cause an obstruction leading to right-sided heart failure and cardiovascular collapse.
3
Select the most appropriate evidence-based intervention.
Clamping the catheter addresses the source, and the left lateral Trendelenburg position utilizes gravity to trap the air in the apex of the right ventricle.
This specific combination of actions is the recognized standard of care to prevent fatal progression of an air embolism.

Key Concept

Management of Venous Air Embolism in Central Venous Catheters
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