An investor holds a concentrated position in senior unsecured debt issued by a mid-sized biotechnology firm. Following the unexpected rejection of the company's leading therapeutic candidate by regulatory authorities, credit rating agencies downgraded the firm's debt from investment grade to speculative grade. Concurrently, broader macroeconomic pressures caused benchmark interest rates to increase across the economy. Which of the following statements regarding the risks affecting this investor's bond position are correct?
- The elevated risk of default stemming from the regulatory rejection represents a non-systematic risk that can be mitigated through asset diversification.Answer
- BThe decline in bond prices caused by rising benchmark interest rates is a form of credit risk unique to this biotechnology issuer.
- The credit rating downgrade directly increases the issuer-specific credit risk premium demanded by the secondary market, independent of systematic rate changes.Answer
- DSystematic price declines in fixed-income markets resulting from macroeconomic rate hikes can be eliminated completely by spreading capital across diverse corporate bond issuers.
Answer
The statement identifying default risk from regulatory rejection as a diversifiable non-systematic risk, and the statement noting that the credit rating downgrade reflects issuer-specific credit risk independent of systemic rate movements, are both correct.
The correct statements correctly classify the failure of the biotechnology firm's drug candidate and the subsequent credit downgrade as non-systematic credit/business risks unique to the issuer. Because these factors are firm-specific, they can be mitigated through asset diversification, and the credit downgrade reflects an issuer-specific credit risk assessment independent of general market interest rate changes.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Non-Systematic (Unsystematic) vs. Systematic Risk and Credit Risk Mitigation