An investor holds a portfolio heavily concentrated in corporate debentures issued by a single mid-sized logistics firm. After a major contract loss, credit rating agencies downgrade the issuer's debt from investment grade to junk status, causing the bond prices to fall significantly. Which of the following correctly identifies the primary risk demonstrated in this scenario, and how can an investor best mitigate it?
- Credit risk, which can be mitigated by diversifying investments across multiple issuers and sectors.Answer
- BInterest rate risk, which can be mitigated by matching the duration of the debt securities to the investor's time horizon.
- CSystematic market risk, which can be completely eliminated by diversifying across various bond maturities.
- DPurchasing power risk, which can be mitigated by holding the corporate debentures until maturity.
Answer
Credit risk, which can be mitigated by diversifying investments across multiple issuers and sectors.
The correct answer identifies credit risk as the primary risk when an individual issuer experiences business difficulties and debt downgrades. Because credit risk is a non-systematic risk unique to a specific firm, it can be mitigated effectively through diversification across multiple issuers and sectors.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Credit risk is a non-systematic risk specific to an individual issuer that can be minimized through portfolio diversification.
Estimated Time:1m 15s