Examkin

Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 questions

All types369Multiple choice188Multiple select62Matching81Ordering38
Question 141Question →

In the context of public finance and Union Budget accounting in India, how is the 'Primary Deficit' calculated?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments

Answer

Primary Deficit is calculated as Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments.
The Primary Deficit measures the current year's fiscal imbalance by deducting past debt service obligations (interest payments) from the Fiscal Deficit. Therefore, the statement defining it as 'Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments' is correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the basic accounting definition of Primary Deficit in Union Budget presentation.
Primary Deficit reflects the government deficit excluding past debt interest obligations.
It shows how much current government spending (excluding interest liabilities) exceeds current revenues.
2
Apply the official budgetary deficit formula.
Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments\text{Primary Deficit} = \text{Fiscal Deficit} - \text{Interest Payments}
Subtracting interest payments isolates the current fiscal stance of the government from liabilities inherited from previous years.

Key Concept

Deficit Indicators in Union Budget Accounting
Estimated Time:45s
Question 142Question →

Which city in Kerala was officially declared as India's first UNESCO 'City of Literature' under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Kozhikode

Answer

Kozhikode
Kozhikode in Kerala was officially declared as India's first UNESCO 'City of Literature' under the Creative Cities Network due to its deep-rooted literary culture, history of journalism, and extensive network of libraries and publication houses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall recent UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) designations for Indian cities.
Kozhikode (Kerala) was honored as the 'City of Literature' and Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh) as the 'City of Music'.
Kozhikode has a prominent place in Malayalam literature, housing over 500 public libraries and serving as home to many iconic writers.

Key Concept

UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) designations in India
Question 143Question →

With reference to the inflation tracking indicators and price index frameworks evaluated in Indian Economic Surveys, consider the following statements:

1. The weight assigned to food and beverages in the Consumer Price Index (CPI-Combined) is substantially higher than the total weight of food articles and products in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The Wholesale Price Index captures price movements in the service sector, whereas the Consumer Price Index measures only physical commodities.
3. The Wholesale Price Index is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser (Ministry of Commerce and Industry), while CPI-Combined is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The statement set '1 and 3 only' is correct. Food items carry a weight of ~45.86% in CPI-Combined versus ~24.4% in WPI. Furthermore, WPI is published by the Office of the Economic Adviser (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) and CPI is published by NSO (MoSPI). Statement 2 is incorrect because WPI excludes services altogether.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding food weightage in CPI vs WPI.
In CPI-Combined (base year 2012), 'Food and Beverages' accounts for approximately 45.86% of the basket. In WPI (base year 2011-12), primary food articles (~15.26%) and manufactured food products (~9.17%) together constitute about 24.4%. Thus, food weight is higher in CPI.
Consumer baskets reflect household expenditure where food forms a major component, whereas wholesale baskets reflect producer and commercial trade structures.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding service sector coverage.
WPI tracks price changes only for physical commodities (Primary Articles, Fuel & Power, and Manufactured Products) and does not cover services. CPI includes services such as health, education, transport, housing, and personal care.
Wholesale transactions focus on bulk physical goods, whereas consumer expenditure covers both goods and services.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding compiling and publishing agencies.
WPI is released monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. CPI-Combined is released monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Different administrative bodies manage wholesale and consumer price statistics based on their institutional mandates.

Key Concept

Methodological differences between CPI and WPI in India
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 144Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the flagship 'Gruha Lakshmi Scheme' implemented by the Government of Karnataka:

1. It provides direct monthly financial assistance of ₹2,000 to the designated woman head of eligible households.
2. The primary nodal implementation agency responsible for administering the scheme is the Department of Women and Child Development, Karnataka.
3. Families in which either the female head of the household or her spouse pays Income Tax or files GST returns are explicitly eligible to receive scheme benefits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The option selecting statements 1 and 2 only is correct because the Gruha Lakshmi Scheme provides ₹2,000 per month to the woman head of an eligible family under the Department of Women and Child Development. Statement 3 is false because individuals paying Income Tax or filing GST returns, as well as their spouses, are explicitly excluded from eligibility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the monthly financial grant provision
Statement 1 is correct. The Gruha Lakshmi Scheme provides ₹2,000 per month directly into the bank accounts of the designated female head of eligible households.
Verifying the primary monetary benefit parameter established under the policy guidelines.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the supervisory department
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme operates under the administrative authority of the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Karnataka.
Identifying the official nodal state agency in charge of execution and monitoring.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding beneficiary inclusion/exclusion criteria
Statement 3 is incorrect. Any household where the woman head or her spouse is an Income Tax payer or a GST filer is strictly disqualified from availing benefits.
Evaluating income ceiling boundaries and statutory exclusion norms.

Key Concept

Gruha Lakshmi Scheme Eligibility Criteria and Nodal Administration
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 145Question →

National Handloom Day is observed annually in India on August 7. Which of the following historical events is directly commemorated by the choice of this specific date?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The formal launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905 at the Calcutta Town Hall

Answer

The formal launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905 at the Calcutta Town Hall
National Handloom Day is observed on August 7 to mark the formal declaration of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905 at the Calcutta Town Hall. The movement aimed to promote indigenous industries, with handloom weaving being at the forefront of the self-reliance struggle against colonial economic policies.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the origin of National Handloom Day in India.
The Government of India declared August 7 as National Handloom Day, first inaugurated in 2015.
To honor the handloom weaving community and highlight its socio-economic contribution.
2
Determine the historical landmark associated with August 7.
On August 7, 1905, the Swadeshi Movement was launched at Calcutta Town Hall with a call to boycott foreign cloth and rely on indigenous products, especially handloom textiles.
Linking modern handloom recognition directly to India's freedom struggle self-reliance strategy.

Key Concept

Historical background of National Handloom Day
Question 146Question →

Consider the following statements regarding recent defense exercises and strategic platforms of the Indian Armed Forces:

1. Exercise 'DUSTLIK' is a bilateral joint military exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army.
2. 'Project Akashteer' is an automated air defense control and reporting system developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the Indian Army to integrate air defense sensors and weapons.
3. INS Arighat is India's second indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) of the Arihant class.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are completely accurate. Exercise DUSTLIK is the bilateral army exercise between India and Uzbekistan. Project Akashteer is BEL's automated air defense control and reporting software/hardware system for the Indian Army. INS Arighat is India's second indigenous Arihant-class nuclear ballistic missile submarine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Exercise DUSTLIK
Statement 1 is correct. Exercise DUSTLIK is the annual bilateral joint army exercise between India and Uzbekistan focused on counter-terrorism operations.
DUSTLIK is specifically conducted between the Indian Army and Uzbekistan Armed Forces.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Project Akashteer
Statement 2 is correct. Developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Project Akashteer digitizes and integrates all air defense monitoring and control nodes for the Indian Army.
Akashteer provides automated command, control, and radar surveillance integration across battle space units.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding INS Arighat
Statement 3 is correct. INS Arighat is India's second Arihant-class nuclear submarine (SSBN) capable of carrying K-15 / K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missiles.
It follows INS Arihant in reinforcing India's nuclear triad sea-based deterrence capabilities.

Key Concept

Indian Joint Military Exercises, Indigenous C4ISR Systems, and Nuclear Triad Strategic Platforms
Question 147Question →

Arrange the following key Indian constitutional and defense leadership appointments made in 2024 in correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: 1) Vice Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi assuming office as Chief of the Naval Staff (April 30, 2024), 2) General Upendra Dwivedi assuming office as Chief of the Army Staff (June 30, 2024), 3) Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh assuming office as Chief of the Air Staff (September 30, 2024), and 4) Justice Sanjiv Khanna taking oath as the 51st Chief Justice of India (November 11, 2024).
The correct sequence follows the exact order of dates when these leadership roles were assumed in 2024: Vice Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi (April 30), General Upendra Dwivedi (June 30), Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh (September 30), and Justice Sanjiv Khanna (November 11).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of appointment for the Chief of the Naval Staff.
Vice Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi assumed office on April 30, 2024.
He succeeded Admiral R. Hari Kumar upon his retirement.
2
Determine the date of appointment for the Chief of the Army Staff.
General Upendra Dwivedi assumed office on June 30, 2024.
He succeeded General Manoj Pande.
3
Determine the date of appointment for the Chief of the Air Staff.
Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh assumed office on September 30, 2024.
He succeeded Air Chief Marshal V. R. Chaudhari.
4
Determine the date of swearing-in for the 51st Chief Justice of India.
Justice Sanjiv Khanna took the oath of office on November 11, 2024.
He succeeded Justice D. Y. Chandrachud.
5
Place the events in order of occurrence.
April 30, 2024 → June 30, 2024 → September 30, 2024 → November 11, 2024.
Comparing the timeline confirms the naval chief appointment was first, followed by the army chief, air chief, and lastly the Chief Justice of India.

Key Concept

Chronological sequence of key national leadership appointments in India
Question 148Question →

Arrange the following major award announcements and honors in chronological order of their occurrence, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Announcement of Bharat Ratna awards (January 2024) → Declaration of the 71st National Film Awards (August 2024) → Announcement of the Nobel Prize in Literature to Han Kang (October 2024) → Release of the Padma Awards list for 2025 (January 2025).
The correct sequence follows the exact timeline of official announcements: Bharat Ratna (January 2024), 71st National Film Awards (August 2024), Nobel Prize in Literature (October 2024), and Padma Awards for 2025 (January 2025).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the timeframe for the Bharat Ratna announcement.
The Government of India announced the Bharat Ratna for Karpoori Thakur, L. K. Advani, and others in January–February 2024.
This establishes the earliest event in the timeline.
2
Identify the date of the 71st National Film Awards announcement.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting announced the 71st National Film Awards in August 2024.
This event occurred after the Bharat Ratna announcement.
3
Identify the timeframe of the Nobel Prize in Literature announcement.
The Swedish Academy announced Han Kang as the Nobel laureate in Literature in October 2024.
Nobel Prize announcements traditionally take place in October every year.
4
Identify the timing of the 2025 Padma Awards list announcement.
Padma Awards are traditionally announced annually on the eve of India's Republic Day, January 25, 2025.
This places the 2025 Padma Awards as the final event in the chronological sequence.

Key Concept

Chronological timeline of major national and international awards and honors
Question 149Question →

Match the key Union Budget initiatives and economic development schemes listed in List I with their primary objectives listed in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM GatiShakti
PM-DevINE
MISHTI Initiative
PM-PRANAM

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM GatiShakti corresponds to the National Master Plan for multimodal connectivity infrastructure. PM-DevINE targets infrastructure and social sector development in the North-Eastern Region. MISHTI Initiative focuses on mangrove plantation and shoreline habitat restoration. PM-PRANAM aims to promote alternative fertilizers and reduce chemical fertilizer use.
Each scheme is accurately matched to its specific mandate announced in Union Budget and Economic Survey presentations: PM GatiShakti focuses on multimodal connectivity, PM-DevINE targets North-East regional development, MISHTI addresses mangrove conservation, and PM-PRANAM promotes sustainable fertilizer usage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of PM GatiShakti
PM GatiShakti aligns with multimodal infrastructure planning across sectors.
It acts as a centralized digital platform bringing 16 ministries together for integrated planning.
2
Identify the target region for PM-DevINE
PM-DevINE specifically funds development in the North-Eastern Region of India.
The scheme was introduced in the Union Budget to address developmental gaps in North-East India.
3
Identify the scope of the MISHTI initiative
MISHTI focuses on shoreline mangrove vegetation and coastal ecosystem preservation.
The acronym stands for Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes.
4
Identify the purpose of PM-PRANAM
PM-PRANAM focuses on sustainable agriculture through alternative fertilizer promotion.
It incentivizes States to reduce reliance on subsidized chemical fertilizers.

Key Concept

Key Flagship Government Schemes and Initiatives from recent Union Budgets
Question 150Question →

Consider the following statements regarding public debt dynamics and sovereign debt sustainability analysis presented in recent Economic Surveys:

1. A negative Interest-Rate Growth Differential (r−g<0r - g < 0), where the nominal GDP growth rate (gg) consistently exceeds the average interest rate paid on government debt (rr), generates automatic debt-stabilizing dynamics even in the presence of primary deficits.
2. India's general government debt portfolio is predominantly denominated in foreign currencies, making its fiscal debt-to-GDP ratio acutely sensitive to international exchange rate fluctuations.
3. Economic Survey evaluations highlight that in fast-growing developing economies like India, high GDP growth (gg) serves as the primary engine for lowering the debt-to-GDP ratio, unlike in low-growth advanced economies where fiscal contraction is heavily relied upon.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statements 1 and 3 are conceptually accurate according to the public finance framework detailed in Indian Economic Surveys. First, a negative Interest-Rate Growth Differential (r−g<0r - g < 0) ensures that GDP expands faster than debt accumulates interest, creating an automatic stabilizing mechanism for the debt-to-GDP ratio. Third, Economic Surveys emphasize that in India, high economic growth (gg) plays the pivotal role in lowering debt ratios, contrasting with low-growth developed nations that rely mainly on fiscal austerity. Statement 2 is false because India's public debt is mostly domestic and rupee-denominated, isolating it from external exchange rate shocks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Interest-Rate Growth Differential (r−gr - g).
Statement 1 is correct. When nominal economic growth rate (gg) exceeds the average effective interest rate on public debt (rr), the Interest-Rate Growth Differential (r−gr - g) is negative. Mathematically, this allows the debt-to-GDP ratio to shrink over time even if the government maintains modest primary fiscal deficits.
Economic Surveys explicitly leverage the Domar debt stability condition, showing that g>rg > r enables debt sustainability in India.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the composition and currency exposure of India's public debt.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India's sovereign debt portfolio is overwhelmingly domestic (held in Indian Rupees), with external debt accounting for only around 4–5% of total public debt. Furthermore, most external debt is from sovereign/multilateral concessional sources rather than short-term foreign commercial borrowings.
Low currency risk and long maturity profiles safeguard India's debt trajectory from foreign exchange market shocks.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the role of GDP growth vs. fiscal consolidation in developing economies.
Statement 3 is correct. Economic Survey findings demonstrate that in high-growth emerging economies, GDP growth (gg) is the dominant driver of debt reduction, whereas advanced economies with stagnant growth rates must rely primarily on discretionary spending cuts and tax hikes (fiscal consolidation).
Policy emphasis in India is placed on capital expenditure to boost potential growth (gg), which naturally improves debt sustainability.

Key Concept

Domar Debt Sustainability Condition and Public Debt Structure in India
Question 151Question →

In the context of recent developments in space technology and earth observation missions, evaluate the given statements regarding the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) project:

I. NISAR utilizes a dual-frequency radar system comprising an L-band synthetic aperture radar supplied by NASA and an S-band synthetic aperture radar supplied by ISRO.
II. The mission employs the SweepSAR technique to achieve simultaneous high spatial resolution and wide swath coverage across terrestrial and ice surfaces.
III. The spacecraft operates from a Geostationary Equatorial Orbit (GEO) at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km35,786\text{ km} to ensure continuous monitoring of a fixed geographic region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: I and II only

Answer

Statements I and II are correct, whereas Statement III is incorrect. Thus, the correct choice is 'I and II only'.
The NISAR mission features an L-band SAR developed by NASA and an S-band SAR developed by ISRO, operating together to collect polarimetric and interferometric data. Using SweepSAR architecture, NISAR achieves both wide-swath coverage (~240 km240\text{ km}) and high resolution. It operates in a polar Sun-synchronous Low Earth Orbit at ~747 km747\text{ km} altitude, allowing it to image the entire globe every 12 days. Statement III falsely claims the orbit is geostationary.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding agency payload contributions.
Statement I is correct. NASA provides the 24 cm24\text{ cm} wavelength L-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), while ISRO provides the 12 cm12\text{ cm} wavelength S-band SAR.
To verify technical hardware allocation between NASA and ISRO.
2
Assess Statement II regarding sensor architecture and SweepSAR functionality.
Statement II is correct. SweepSAR technology allows the radar receiver to sweep across an expansive swath of over 240 km240\text{ km} while preserving high spatial resolution.
To confirm how the satellite overcomes traditional resolution-versus-swath width trade-offs.
3
Analyze Statement III regarding orbital parameters.
Statement III is incorrect. NISAR is launched into a polar Sun-synchronous Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at an altitude of roughly 747 km747\text{ km} with an inclination of 98.4∘98.4^\circ. Geostationary orbit (GEO) cannot provide polar coverage or repeat-pass interferometry for global ice-sheet dynamics.
To check orbital mechanics against Earth observation operational requirements.

Key Concept

Dual-frequency SAR instruments, SweepSAR imaging, and Earth observation orbital parameters
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 152Question →

Arrange the following significant global and national appointments and awards from 2024 in chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Assumption of office by Paetongtarn Shinawatra as Prime Minister of Thailand (August 18, 2024), followed by Assumption of office by Anura Kumara Dissanayake as President of Sri Lanka (September 23, 2024), Swearing-in of Justice Sanjiv Khanna as the 51st Chief Justice of India (November 11, 2024), and finally the Conferment of the 2024 Booker Prize on Samantha Harvey (November 12, 2024).
The correct sequence begins with Paetongtarn Shinawatra assuming office as Prime Minister of Thailand on August 18, 2024. This was followed by Anura Kumara Dissanayake taking the presidential oath in Sri Lanka on September 23, 2024. Next, Justice Sanjiv Khanna was sworn in as the 51st Chief Justice of India on November 11, 2024. Finally, Samantha Harvey was conferred the Booker Prize 2024 on November 12, 2024.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date for Paetongtarn Shinawatra's appointment as Thailand's Prime Minister
August 18, 2024
She was appointed following the ruling of the Constitutional Court of Thailand.
2
Determine the date for Anura Kumara Dissanayake's assumption of office as President of Sri Lanka
September 23, 2024
He won the Sri Lankan presidential election held on September 21, 2024, and was sworn in two days later.
3
Determine the date for the swearing-in of the 51st Chief Justice of India
November 11, 2024
Justice Sanjiv Khanna took the oath of office succeeding Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.
4
Determine the announcement date for the 2024 Booker Prize
November 12, 2024
Author Samantha Harvey won the prize for her space-station-set novel 'Orbital' at the ceremony in London.

Key Concept

Chronological sequencing of high-profile international and national appointments, honors, and awards in current events.
Question 153Question →

Match the international observances listed in List-I with their corresponding official calendar dates in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

World Tuberculosis Day
World Press Freedom Day
World Oceans Day
World Refugee Day

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: World Tuberculosis Day is observed on March 24, World Press Freedom Day is observed on May 3, World Oceans Day is observed on June 8, and World Refugee Day is observed on June 20.
Each observance correctly pairs with its UN-designated date: World Tuberculosis Day on March 24, World Press Freedom Day on May 3, World Oceans Day on June 8, and World Refugee Day on June 20.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the official observance date for World Tuberculosis Day.
World Tuberculosis Day corresponds to March 24.
It commemorates Dr. Robert Koch's 1882 discovery of the TB bacterium.
2
Identify the official observance date for World Press Freedom Day.
World Press Freedom Day corresponds to May 3.
It marks the anniversary of the Windhoek Declaration on independent and pluralistic media.
3
Identify the official observance date for World Oceans Day.
World Oceans Day corresponds to June 8.
It was officially recognized by the United Nations General Assembly in 2008.
4
Identify the official observance date for World Refugee Day.
World Refugee Day corresponds to June 20.
It was established by the UN General Assembly on December 4, 2000.

Key Concept

Official calendar dates designated by international bodies (UN/WHO) for global awareness observances.
Question 154Question →

Match the flagship economic initiatives highlighted in recent Union Budgets (List I) with their respective primary focus and objectives (List II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM Gati Shakti
PM-PRANAM
MISHTI
PM-VIKAS

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM Gati Shakti pairs with Multimodal connectivity infrastructure; PM-PRANAM pairs with Promotion of alternative fertilizers; MISHTI pairs with Mangrove plantation along coastlines; and PM-VIKAS pairs with Comprehensive support for traditional artisans.
Each initiative corresponds directly to its sectoral mandate introduced in recent Union Budgets: PM Gati Shakti focuses on multimodal infrastructure connectivity, PM-PRANAM targets alternative fertilizer promotion, MISHTI facilitates coastal mangrove ecological restoration, and PM-VIKAS provides holistic support to traditional artisans.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of PM Gati Shakti
PM Gati Shakti is focused on integrated infrastructure planning and multimodal transport logistics.
It addresses infrastructural bottlenecks to lower overall logistics costs in the economy.
2
Identify the goal of PM-PRANAM
PM-PRANAM targets balanced soil nutrition by promoting bio-fertilizers and reducing chemical fertilizer subsidy burdens.
The scheme encourages state-level adoption of eco-friendly agricultural inputs.
3
Identify the domain of MISHTI
MISHTI focuses on mangrove plantation across India's coastline using convergence of funds.
It aims to protect coastal bio-shields and generate sustainable eco-tourism incomes.
4
Identify the target beneficiaries of PM-VIKAS
PM-VIKAS is tailored to traditional craftspeople (Vishwakarmas) to improve product quality, branding, and market access.
It provides financial inclusion and skill enhancement for micro-level artisans.

Key Concept

Flagship Budgetary Initiatives and Sectoral Allocations
Question 155Question →

Match the following joint defense exercises of the Indian Armed Forces (List-I) with their respective partner nations and operational focus (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Exercise SADA TANSEEQ
Exercise Desert Knight
Exercise Sea Dragon
Exercise VINBAX

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Exercise SADA TANSEEQ matches with the inaugural joint army exercise between India and Saudi Arabia focusing on sub-conventional operations; Exercise Desert Knight matches with the joint air exercise conducted over the Arabian Sea involving the air forces of India, France, and the UAE; Exercise Sea Dragon matches with the multilateral Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise led by the US Navy involving Indo-Pacific partner nations; and Exercise VINBAX matches with the joint military training exercise between India and Vietnam focusing on engineering and medical tasks under UN peacekeeping mandates.
Each defense exercise is matched precisely with its correct service branch, partner country, and operational scope. Exercise SADA TANSEEQ pairs with the Indian-Saudi Arabian land exercise; Exercise Desert Knight corresponds to the India-France-UAE trilateral air exercise; Exercise Sea Dragon aligns with the US-led multinational ASW exercise; and Exercise VINBAX pairs with the India-Vietnam peacekeeping engineering/medical exercise.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the partner nation and branch for Exercise SADA TANSEEQ.
Exercise SADA TANSEEQ represents the bilateral land-based exercise between India and Saudi Arabia.
It was launched to strengthen military diplomacy and tactics in desert/semi-urban warfare between the Indian Army and Royal Saudi Land Forces.
2
Analyze the operational domain and participating air forces of Exercise Desert Knight.
Exercise Desert Knight involves the Indian Air Force collaborating with French and UAE air assets in the Arabian Sea airspace.
This trilateral air exercise enhances joint tactical operating capabilities within the strategic region of the Arabian Sea.
3
Determine the focus and host of Exercise Sea Dragon.
Exercise Sea Dragon is a US Navy-led multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare maritime exercise.
Participating maritime patrol and reconnaissance aircraft from Quad countries and regional partners train together in real-world ASW tracking scenarios.
4
Determine the primary objectives of Exercise VINBAX.
Exercise VINBAX is a bilateral exercise between India and Vietnam focused on UN Peacekeeping operations.
The exercise concentrates on field engineering, medical unit deployment, and disaster relief tasks under a United Nations mandate.

Key Concept

Bilateral and Multilateral Military Exercises of India
Question 156Question →

Nihon Hidankyo, a Japanese organization of atomic bomb survivors (hibakusha) from Hiroshima and Nagasaki, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2024. For which of the following contributions was this organization recognized?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Efforts to achieve a world free of nuclear weapons and demonstrating through witness testimony that nuclear weapons must never be used again

Answer

Efforts to achieve a world free of nuclear weapons and demonstrating through witness testimony that nuclear weapons must never be used again
The correct response highlights the core mission of Nihon Hidankyo. The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize to the organization for its tireless efforts to achieve a nuclear-weapon-free world and for establishing the nuclear taboo through personal testimonies of survivors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the recipient of the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize.
The recipient was Nihon Hidankyo, a Japanese movement formed by survivors of the 1945 atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Recognizing the honoree establishes the domain of the award.
2
Recall the official citation and core focus of the organization's work.
The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the prize for its efforts to achieve a world free of nuclear weapons and for demonstrating through witness testimony that nuclear weapons must never be used again.
This directly confirms the core achievement recognized by the Nobel Committee.

Key Concept

2024 Nobel Peace Prize Recipient and Citation
Estimated Time:45s
Question 157Question →

State governments in India frequently launch targeted policies and welfare initiatives to address regional social and economic objectives. Regarding recent state-specific welfare schemes and administrative provisions, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Odisha's KALIA (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation) scheme provides direct financial support to small and marginal farmers as well as landless agricultural laborers under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers' Empowerment.; Tamil Nadu's Pudhumai Penn Scheme provides monthly financial assistance to female students who completed their schooling in government institutions from Classes 6 to 12 to promote higher education enrollment.

Answer

The statements regarding Odisha's KALIA scheme and Tamil Nadu's Pudhumai Penn Scheme are correct.
The correct options accurately identify the parameters of Odisha's KALIA scheme (which supports both small/marginal farmers and landless laborers) and Tamil Nadu's Pudhumai Penn scheme (which provides ₹1,000₹1,000 monthly financial assistance to female students from government schools pursuing higher education).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the provisions of Odisha's KALIA scheme.
KALIA is administered by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers' Empowerment, covering both land-owning small/marginal farmers and landless agricultural laborers for income and livelihood support.
Verifying nodal department, target beneficiaries, and core scheme objectives.
2
Evaluate the provisions of Tamil Nadu's Pudhumai Penn Scheme.
The scheme targets female students from government schools (Classes 6-12) by providing ₹1,000₹1,000 per month until completion of undergraduate degrees/diplomas to improve gross enrollment ratios.
Verifying educational eligibility requirements and monthly financial grant figures.
3
Evaluate the statement concerning Telangana's Rythu Bandhu scheme.
Rythu Bandhu provides direct seasonal crop investment support to land-title holding farmers (₹5,000₹5,000 per acre per season), not a pension scheme for tenant farmers.
Identifying misconceptions regarding scheme parameters and beneficiary definitions.
4
Evaluate the statement concerning Rajasthan's Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana.
The Chiranjeevi scheme offers universal health insurance coverage across all resident households, rather than restricting benefits to specific caste categories.
Analyzing geographic and demographic eligibility boundaries of state health initiatives.

Key Concept

State-Specific Current Events, Welfare Schemes, and Public Policies
Question 158Question →

India's first dedicated solar space observatory, Aditya-L1, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), is positioned in a halo orbit around which specific equilibrium point in the Sun-Earth system?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lagrangian Point 1 (L1)

Answer

Lagrangian Point 1 (L1)
The correct option correctly identifies Lagrangian Point 1 (L1). Placing Aditya-L1 in a halo orbit around L1 provides the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation or eclipses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the main scientific objective and destination of ISRO's solar observatory mission.
The mission is Aditya-L1, designed to study the Sun's atmosphere, corona, and solar wind.
The name of the mission reflects its planned orbital destination.
2
Determine the strategic orbital location in the Sun-Earth system.
It is positioned in a halo orbit around Lagrangian Point 1 (L1), about 1.5 million km from Earth.
L1 provides an unobstructed view of the Sun without any occultation or eclipse events.

Key Concept

Aditya-L1 Solar Mission and Sun-Earth Lagrange Points
Question 159Question →

Match the economic development initiatives and digital policy platforms (List I) highlighted in recent Union Budgets and Economic Surveys with their corresponding operational objectives (List II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

National Single Window System (NSWS)
Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP)
Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES)
Export Preparedness Index (EPI)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

National Single Window System (NSWS) matches with providing a single digital interface for investors to obtain government clearances across Union and State departments; Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) matches with integrating digital data across transport modes to enable seamless multi-modal logistics monitoring; Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) matches with assisting Union and State government agencies in developing dedicated export growth infrastructure; Export Preparedness Index (EPI) matches with evaluating state-level export ecosystems, policy frameworks, and business environments.
National Single Window System (NSWS) simplifies investor approvals by acting as a single portal across ministries. Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) brings multi-modal logistics data together under the National Logistics Policy. Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) funds export-linked physical infrastructure projects. Export Preparedness Index (EPI) ranks states on export capacity and policy readiness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze National Single Window System (NSWS)
NSWS is an investor facilitator portal designed to streamline G2B clearances and approvals under a single portal.
Identify the primary mechanism for easing investor compliance burdens across Union and State jurisdictions.
2
Analyze Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP)
ULIP serves as the core digital component under the National Logistics Policy, linking logistics data from road, rail, air, and water transport.
Determine the digital infrastructure platform that integrates real-time cargo and transport tracking.
3
Analyze Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES)
TIES focuses on funding public-good export infrastructure projects like specialized ports, labs, and logistics parks.
Distinguish central capital assistance schemes meant specifically for physical export trade infrastructure.
4
Analyze Export Preparedness Index (EPI)
EPI evaluates sub-national export competitiveness by assessing states on policy, business ecosystem, export ecosystem, and export performance.
Identify the diagnostic survey index used by NITI Aayog for comparative state export assessment.

Key Concept

Digital Platforms and Infrastructure Initiatives in Economic Surveys and Budgets
Question 160Question →

With reference to the prestigious 58th Jnanpith Award announced in 2024, consider the following statements:

1. The award was jointly conferred upon celebrated Urdu poet Gulzar and eminent Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.
2. This marks only the second time that the Sanskrit language has been recognized with the Jnanpith Award.
3. The award is presented annually by the Sahitya Akademi under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statement combination '1 and 2 only' is correct.
The correct answer combines statements 1 and 2. The 58th Jnanpith Award was jointly announced for Urdu literary figure Gulzar and Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya. This is indeed the second time Sanskrit has won the honor (first being Satya Vrat Shastri in 2006). Statement 3 is false because Bharatiya Jnanpith, a private cultural organization, presents the award, not Sahitya Akademi.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify the award recipients for the 58th Jnanpith Award.
The Jnanpith Selection Committee selected renowned Urdu poet/filmmaker Gulzar (Sampooran Singh Kalra) and spiritual leader/Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya as joint awardees for the 58th Jnanpith Award. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Direct confirmation of current affairs news regarding literary honors.
2
Analyze language history associated with the award.
Before this selection, Sanskrit had received the Jnanpith Award only once—conferred on Acharya Satya Vrat Shastri in 2006. This award marks the second instance of Sanskrit receiving the honor. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Historical precedent analysis of language representation in national awards.
3
Identify the institutional authority that confers the Jnanpith Award.
The Jnanpith Award is presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith (instituted in 1961 by Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain and Rama Jain), an independent private cultural trust. Sahitya Akademi is a separate autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture that gives Sahitya Akademi awards. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguishing between private trusts and statutory/autonomous government institutions conferring literary awards.

Key Concept

Recipients, history, and conferring bodies of major Indian literary awards (Jnanpith Award).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
PreviousPage 8 / 19Next
Current Affairs and General Awareness Practice Questions — State PSC Exam — Page 8 | Examkin