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State Specific General Knowledge

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Question 161Question →

Arrange the following historic temple monuments of Odisha in chronological order of their original construction, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological order of construction from earliest to latest is: Parasuramesvara Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 7th century CE) → Mukteshvara Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 10th century CE) → Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 11th century CE) → Sun Temple, Konark (c. 13th century CE).
The correct sequence tracks the architectural evolution of the Kalinga style in Odisha across successive ruling dynasties: Parasuramesvara Temple (7th century CE, Sailodbhava dynasty) represents the early phase; Mukteshvara Temple (10th century CE, Somavamshi dynasty) represents the transitional phase; Lingaraja Temple (11th century CE, Somavamshi dynasty) represents the mature phase; and the Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE, Eastern Ganga dynasty) represents the climax.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the construction era of Parasuramesvara Temple.
Built around 650 CE during the Sailodbhava dynasty rule, making it one of the oldest surviving Kalinga-style temples in Odisha.
Establishes the early baseline phase of temple architecture in Bhubaneswar.
2
Determine the construction era of Mukteshvara Temple.
Built around 950–975 CE during the Somavamshi period, often described as the 'gem of Odisha architecture'.
Marks the transitional phase bridging early structures with classic mature Kalinga design.
3
Determine the construction era of Lingaraja Temple.
Built during the 11th century CE (c. 1025–1065 CE) primarily by King Jajati Keshari of the Somavamshi dynasty.
Represents the grand culmination of the Somavamshi phase and full Pancharatha plan.
4
Determine the construction era of Sun Temple at Konark.
Built in the mid-13th century CE (c. 1250 CE) under King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
Marks the culmination and final monumental scale of Kalinga architecture before decline.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Kalinga temple architecture under various ruling dynasties of Odisha
Question 162Question →

Consider the following major historical uprisings and movements in regional state history (Assam). Arrange these historical movements in their correct chronological order from the earliest to the latest. Which sequence represents the correct chronological order?

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Moamaria Rebellion against the Ahom monarchy (1769), Anti-British Revolt led by Gomdhar Konwar (1828), Phulaguri Dhawa peasant uprising (1861), and Patharughat Raij Mel agrarian revolt (1894).
The events progress chronologically as follows: the Moamaria Rebellion started in 1769 during the Ahom period; Gomdhar Konwar led the first post-Yandabo revolt against the East India Company in 1828; Phulaguri Dhawa took place in 1861 as the first popular agrarian struggle under crown rule; and the Patharughat Raij Mel occurred in 1894.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical year of origin for the Moamaria Rebellion
The uprising commenced in 1769 during the reign of Ahom King Lakshmi Singha.
It represents late medieval regional conflict prior to British expansion.
2
Determine the date of Gomdhar Konwar's rebellion
Gomdhar Konwar proclaimed himself king and revolted in 1828 after the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo.
This marks the immediate early colonial resistance phase in regional history.
3
Establish the timeframe of the Phulaguri Dhawa peasant movement
The movement erupted in October 1861 in Nagaon/Nowgong.
It was triggered by rumors of taxes on betel leaf/areca nut cultivation following the 1857 post-revolt crown administration takeover.
4
Determine the date of the Patharughat agrarian protest
The tragic massacre and revolt at Patharughat occurred in January 1894.
It was provoked by a 70–80% hike in land revenue assessments imposed by the British revenue policy.

Key Concept

Chronology of regional anti-colonial and agrarian movements in state history
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 163Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical and ecological features of the Eravikulam National Park:

1. It harbors the largest surviving population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocriusNilgiritragus\ hylocrius).
2. Anamudi Peak, the highest peak in South India, is located inside the boundary of this national park.
3. It forms an immediate contiguous forest stretch with the Silent Valley National Park along its northern boundary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The statement identifying '1 and 2 only' is correct. Eravikulam National Park holds the world's largest population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr and encloses South India's highest peak, Anamudi. However, it is contiguous with Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and neighboring Shola parks in Idukki, not with Silent Valley National Park in Palakkad.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding fauna species.
Eravikulam National Park in the Western Ghats (Idukki district) is renowned for hosting the largest wild population of the Nilgiri Tahr. Statement 1 is correct.
Verify flagship endangered species of the sanctuary.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding geographical features.
Anamudi Peak (elevation 2,695 m2,695\text{ m}), the highest peak in Peninsular India, rises within the southern section of Eravikulam National Park. Statement 2 is correct.
Verify key topographic landmarks associated with state national parks.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding contiguous protected areas.
Eravikulam is contiguous with Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, Anamudi Shola National Park, Pampadum Shola National Park, and Kurinjimala Sanctuary. Silent Valley National Park lies further north in the Palakkad district within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and does not share a contiguous boundary with Eravikulam. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguish distinct geographical nodes and spatial continuity of state wildlife corridors.

Key Concept

Spatial arrangement, geographical boundaries, and flagship species of state national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 164Question →

Arrange the following prominent regional uprisings and historical movements against British colonial administration in Indian state history in their correct chronological order, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: First Polygar War led by Veerapandiya Kattabomman (1799), followed by Bhil Uprising in Khandesh (1818), Sawantwadi Revolt (1844), and Eka Movement in Awadh (1921).
The correct sequence follows the exact historical timeline of anti-colonial regional revolts: the First Polygar War took place in 1799 in Panchalankurichi; the Khandesh Bhil Uprising began in 1818 following the overthrow of the Peshwa; the Sawantwadi Revolt erupted in 1844 due to British administrative interference; and the Eka Movement in Awadh was launched in 1921 by Madari Pasi.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the exact execution or outbreak year for each historical movement.
First Polygar War occurred in 1799; Bhil Uprising in Khandesh started in 1818; Sawantwadi Revolt began in 1844; Eka Movement started in late 1921.
Accurate historical timeline retrieval is necessary for establishing regional movement chronology.
2
Sequence the events in ascending chronological order.
1799 (Polygar War) → 1818 (Bhil Uprising) → 1844 (Sawantwadi Revolt) → 1921 (Eka Movement).
Placing dates sequentially satisfies the chronological ordering criteria.

Key Concept

Chronological evaluation of regional anti-colonial rebellions, peasant movements, and state-level historical resistance.
Question 165Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the historic Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in the Madras Presidency's Agency region:

1. It was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju, who organized tribal inhabitants against the oppressive provisions of the 1882 Madras Forest Act.
2. The rebels effectively used guerilla warfare tactics against British police posts across the Agency tracts.
3. The uprising ended peacefully following negotiations conducted under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct answer is the choice containing '1 and 2 only'.
The correct statement combination recognizes that Alluri Sitarama Raju mobilized the tribal population against the Madras Forest Act of 1882 using guerilla tactics in the Agency hills between 1922 and 1924. Statement 3 is false because the uprising ended with Raju's martyrdom in May 1924.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
Alluri Sitarama Raju led the tribal people in the Agency areas of Visakhapatnam and Godavari districts against the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which restricted traditional tribal forest practices (Podu cultivation).
2
Evaluate Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
The rebellion was notable for its successful use of traditional weapons and guerilla warfare in dense forests, targeting British police stations to seize arms and ammunition.
3
Evaluate Statement 3
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The rebellion ended in May 1924 when Alluri Sitarama Raju was trapped, captured, and executed by British troops. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact occurred much later in March 1931.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion (1922-1924) and Regional Tribal Movements
Question 166Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement in regional state history are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: It originated in the Mewar princely state as a sustained agrarian struggle against excessive land revenue demands and arbitrary local feudal cesses (Lag-Bag).; Vijay Singh Pathik assumed leadership of the movement during its second phase, expanding its organizational base through the Rajasthan Seva Sangh.

Answer

The correct statements are that the movement originated in the Mewar princely state against exorbitant land revenue and cesses, and that Vijay Singh Pathik led its second phase.
The correct statements accurately identify that the Bijolia Peasant Movement originated in Mewar to protest heavy feudal cesses and that Vijay Singh Pathik effectively organized its second phase.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical origin and primary causes of the Bijolia movement
The Bijolia movement began in 1897 in Mewar (present-day Rajasthan) primarily as resistance against 84 different types of feudal cesses (Lag-Bag) and excessive revenue assessments.
Establishes the historical and regional context of the peasant struggle.
2
Verify key leadership contributions across movement phases
Vijay Singh Pathik (Bhup Singh) assumed leadership in 1916 (Phase 2), guiding the movement effectively and bringing national attention to the peasants' grievances.
Confirms the accurate leadership history without confusing external personalities.
3
Evaluate chronological timeline and legislative context
The struggle spanned from 1897 to 1941, making references to the 1857 Revolt or 1909 Morley-Minto Reforms chronologically and conceptually inaccurate.
Eliminates distractor statements based on historical misattribution and timeline errors.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement
Question 167Question →

In state demographic studies, distinguishing between absolute population counts and proportional distributions across administrative districts is essential for targeted tribal welfare policy. According to official Census data, which district of Madhya Pradesh records the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population relative to its total district population?

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Answer: Alirajpur

Answer

Alirajpur district records the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to total district population in Madhya Pradesh at approximately 89%.
Alirajpur district holds the highest percentage concentration of Scheduled Tribe population in the state at approximately 89% of its total resident population.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the demographic indicators requested in the question stem
The requirement specifies finding the district with the highest proportion (percentage) of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population relative to its total population, not the absolute numerical count.
State PSC exams often contrast absolute demographic numbers against percentage proportions to test analytical precision.
2
Compare district-level ST population percentages from official Census metrics
Alirajpur leads with ~89% ST population, followed by Jhabua (~87%), Barwani (~69.4%), and Dhar (~53.6%).
Evaluating percentage figures reveals the concentration level of tribal demographics per district.
3
Identify the top-ranked district
Alirajpur is confirmed as the district with the highest percentage of ST population.
Alirajpur has the highest relative tribal concentration among all districts of Madhya Pradesh.

Key Concept

District-level Tribal Demographics and Proportional Distribution Metrics
Question 168Question →

Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks in List-I with their key flagship species in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Gir National Park
Kaziranga National Park
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Keoladeo Ghana National Park

Matches

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Answer

Gir National Park matches with Asiatic Lion; Kaziranga National Park matches with Great One-Horned Rhinoceros; Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Asian Elephant; Keoladeo Ghana National Park matches with Migratory Waterbirds.
Each sanctuary or national park is matched with its key flagship fauna: Gir National Park protects Asiatic Lions, Kaziranga National Park protects Great One-Horned Rhinoceroses, Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary protects Asian Elephants, and Keoladeo Ghana National Park hosts Migratory Waterbirds.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pair Gir National Park with its primary species
Gir National Park -> Asiatic Lion
Gir is internationally recognized as the exclusive wild home of Asiatic Lions.
2
Pair Kaziranga National Park with its flagship species
Kaziranga National Park -> Great One-Horned Rhinoceros
Kaziranga holds two-thirds of the world's population of Great One-horned Rhinoceroses.
3
Pair Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary with its flagship species
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary -> Asian Elephant
Periyar in the Western Ghats is prominent for wild elephant herds around its central lake.
4
Pair Keoladeo Ghana National Park with its primary species
Keoladeo Ghana National Park -> Migratory Waterbirds
Keoladeo is a wetland sanctuary famous for vast wintering flocks of migratory birds.

Key Concept

State Protected Areas and Flagship Wildlife Species Mapping
Question 169Question →

With reference to the Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in the Agency tracts of the Madras Presidency (present-day Andhra Pradesh), consider the following statements:

1. The rebellion was primarily triggered by the oppressive enforcement of the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which restricted traditional podu (shifting) cultivation and tribal access to forest resources.
2. The movement was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju, who mobilized tribal communities and employed effective guerrilla warfare tactics against colonial police forces.
3. The rebellion was officially organized and directed as an armed wing of the central Indian National Congress during the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statements asserting that the rebellion was triggered by the Madras Forest Act of 1882 and spearheaded by Alluri Sitarama Raju using guerrilla tactics are correct (1 and 2 only).
The Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in Andhra Pradesh was a major tribal uprising against the British Raj. The colonial administration restricted the tribal population's access to forests and banned podu (shifting) cultivation under the Madras Forest Act of 1882. Alluri Sitarama Raju led the tribal insurgents, conducting successful guerrilla warfare against police outposts in the Agency regions. However, the movement operated independently of the Indian National Congress leadership.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the cause of the rebellion.
Statement 1 is correct. The Rampa Rebellion of 1922–1924 was caused by severe grievances of the Koya and Kondadora tribals against the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which curtailed their customary rights over forest produce and podu (shifting) agriculture.
Establishing the economic and socio-legal trigger of the regional uprising.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding leadership and tactics.
Statement 2 is correct. Alluri Sitarama Raju organized the tribal people into a cohesive fighting force and carried out surprise guerrilla raids on police stations (such as Chintapalle, Rampa Chodavaram, and Addateegala) to capture arms and ammunition.
Evaluating the tactical nature and leadership of the historical movement.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding organizational affiliation with the Indian National Congress.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Although Raju admired Mahatma Gandhi and encouraged tribals to wear khadi and give up liquor, the rebellion was an independent armed tribal uprising and was not officially organized, sanctioned, or directed by the Indian National Congress.
Distinguishing between independent regional tribal uprisings and official Congress mass movements.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) under Alluri Sitarama Raju
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 170Question →

Regarding state demographic indicators, tribal welfare initiatives, and human development parameters, which of the following statements are correct?

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Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are characterized by stagnant or declining populations, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy levels.; Special central assistance and targeted welfare schemes aim to improve tribal literacy rates and reduce human development disparities across state districts.

Answer

The correct statements are the ones describing PVTG characteristics (stagnant/declining population, pre-agricultural technology, low literacy) and the role of targeted welfare schemes in bridging tribal development gaps.
The correct statements accurately identify the established demographic and developmental criteria of PVTGs alongside the focus of state welfare programs on reducing regional human development gaps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statement regarding PVTG characteristics
Stagnant or declining population, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy are the standard criteria defining PVTGs.
This criterion is established officially for identifying targeted tribal development groups.
2
Evaluate statement regarding welfare schemes and human development
State and federal initiatives actively target education and healthcare disparities in tribal regions.
Human development policies focus on uplifting vulnerable demographic groups.
3
Evaluate statements regarding urban-rural distribution and geographic spatial uniformity of tribes
Both statements are incorrect as tribal populations are rural-concentrated and regionally clustered.
Demographic survey data confirms tribal concentrations in specific forest/hilly districts rather than uniform urban spread.

Key Concept

State Demographics, Tribes, and Human Development
Question 171Question →

In the context of the cultural heritage, traditional arts, and architectural monuments of Maharashtra, which of the following pairs of heritage site or art form and its associated historical feature or patron is correctly matched?

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Answer: Warli Folk Painting – Traditional tribal mural art executed using white pigment derived from rice paste, traditionally practiced on mud walls in the Palghar district

Answer

The pair correctly matching Warli Folk Painting with its traditional use of white rice-paste pigment on mud walls in the Palghar district of Maharashtra is the correct answer.
The correct answer accurately identifies Warli Folk Painting as a tribal art form originating from Maharashtra's Palghar and Thane districts, characterized by basic geometric patterns painted with white rice-paste pigment on mud walls.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patron dynasty and architectural details of the Kalaram Temple at Nashik.
The temple was commissioned in 1782 CE by Sardar Rangarao Odhekar during the Maratha Peshwa era, disproving the association with the ancient Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Correct historical attribution of Maratha-era temple construction.
2
Examine the origin and materials of Warli Folk Painting.
Warli painting is a recognized indigenous tribal art form of northern Maharashtra (Palghar/Thane), traditionally using white rice-flour paste on red mud walls.
Authentic verification of state cultural art forms.
3
Evaluate the historical patronage of the Kailash Temple at Ellora and Bibi Ka Maqbara.
Ellora Cave 16 (Kailash Temple) was commissioned by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I (not Satavahanas), while Bibi Ka Maqbara was built for Rabia-ud-Daurani by Prince Azam Shah / Aurangzeb (not Shah Jahan).
Distinguishing royal patrons of Maharashtra's UNESCO world heritage and architectural sites.

Key Concept

State-specific cultural heritage, art forms, and architectural patronage in Maharashtra
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 172Question →

Arrange the following major mineral-producing districts of Odisha in geographical sequence from North to South:

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Answer

The correct geographical sequence from North to South is Sundargarh District, followed by Rayagada District, and lastly Koraput District.
Sundargarh is situated in northern Odisha, Rayagada lies in south-central Odisha, and Koraput is located further south near the southern state border. Thus, the proper North to South order is Sundargarh District, Rayagada District, and Koraput District.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the latitude and regional position of Sundargarh District.
Sundargarh lies in northern Odisha (approx. 22° N latitude).
Establishing the northernmost anchor item.
2
Identify the geographical position of Rayagada District relative to Sundargarh and Koraput.
Rayagada is located in south-central Odisha (approx. 19.17° N latitude).
Placing the intermediate district.
3
Determine the southernmost district among the given options.
Koraput lies in southern Odisha (approx. 18.81° N latitude).
Establishing the southern anchor item.

Key Concept

Geographical distribution of bauxite and mineral belts in Odisha
Question 173Question →

In the context of state demographics and human development indicators, which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between tribal population concentration, sex ratios, and literacy parameters across administrative districts?

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Answer: Districts with higher Scheduled Tribe (ST) population proportions frequently record higher Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) than highly urbanized districts, despite exhibiting lower overall literacy rates.

Answer

Districts with higher Scheduled Tribe (ST) population proportions frequently record higher Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) than highly urbanized districts, despite exhibiting lower overall literacy rates.
State Human Development Reports and Census analyses demonstrate that tribal-dominated administrative districts tend to preserve favorable Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) owing to traditional egalitarian gender norms, even while recording lower overall literacy rates compared to urbanized districts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the demographic indicators associated with tribal-dominated districts versus urban districts.
Tribal communities exhibit less severe son preference and maintain higher child sex ratios, but face structural deficits in formal educational access.
Socio-cultural norms in tribal societies generally value female children, whereas urban centers have historically faced skewed gender ratios.
2
Evaluate the official criteria defining Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and demographic vulnerability.
Stagnant or declining population growth combined with low literacy defines PVTG vulnerability.
Demographic stagnation in PVTGs reflects marginalization and health vulnerabilities rather than high human development.
3
Synthesize the literacy and gender metric dynamics across state administrative regions.
High female literacy is concentrated in developed urban districts, whereas high child sex ratio is positively correlated with tribal population share.
This inverse trend between literacy levels and child sex ratio across tribal vs. urban areas is a standard analytical finding in State Human Development Reports.

Key Concept

State Demographic Profiles and Tribal Human Development Indicators
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 174Question →

Which famous national park and wildlife sanctuary, situated in the state of Gujarat, serves as the only natural habitat for the Asiatic lion?

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Answer: Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer

Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the Kathiawar peninsula of Gujarat, was established in 1965 and remains the only place in the world where the Asiatic lion exists in its natural wild habitat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the specific species mentioned in the question
The target species is the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica).
The Asiatic lion has a restricted geographic range limited to a single wildlife preserve region in India.
2
Map the species to its protected habitat and state location
Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is the sole home of the wild Asiatic lion population.
Conservation efforts centered in Gir, Gujarat saved the Asiatic lion from near extinction.

Key Concept

State Protected Areas and Endemic Wildlife Species
Estimated Time:45s
Question 175Question →

In state economic geography, the Mangampeta deposit located in the Kadapa (YSR) district of Andhra Pradesh is globally renowned for holding over 90% of India's total reserves of which natural mineral resource?

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Answer: Barytes

Answer

Barytes is the mineral resource concentrated at the Mangampeta deposit in Kadapa (YSR) district.
The correct answer is Barytes. The Mangampeta deposit in the Pullampet mandal of Kadapa (YSR) district, Andhra Pradesh, is one of the largest single bedded deposits of barytes in the world, accounting for more than 90% of India's total reserves and contributing significantly to the state's mining revenue and export economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical and geological location mentioned in the stem.
Location identified as Mangampeta in Kadapa (YSR) district of Andhra Pradesh.
Establishing the specific regional mining belt helps recall official State Economic Survey data on mineral endowment.
2
Analyze the mineral occurrence characteristics and national reserve share.
Mangampeta is a unique volcanic-grey volcanic tuff bedded deposit that holds over 90% of India's total barytes (BaSO4BaSO_4) resources.
Barytes is heavily used as a weighting agent in petroleum drilling muds and chemical manufacturing.
3
Evaluate the distractors against regional mineral geography.
Bauxite, Chromite, and Sillimanite belong to different geological formations and primary producing states/districts.
Differentiating regional mineral belts prevents misattribution of industrial minerals.

Key Concept

State Mineral Resource Distribution and Economic Geology
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 176Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the agro-climatic profile, soil distribution, and mineral resources of Andhra Pradesh:

1. The Krishna-Godavari deltaic region falls within the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone, serving as a major hub for paddy cultivation.
2. The Rayalaseema region receives heavy annual rainfall from the southwest monsoon, consisting primarily of fertile alluvial soils dedicated to wet-land farming.
3. The Tummalapalle belt situated in the YSR Kadapa district contains massive reserves of uranium minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct combination includes statements 1 and 3 only. The Krishna-Godavari delta is part of the East Coast Plains and Hills zone with high agricultural output, and Tummalapalle in Kadapa district is a major uranium deposit. Statement 2 is false because Rayalaseema receives limited rainfall and is covered mostly by red and black soils.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding agro-climatic zoning
The Krishna-Godavari delta region is classified under the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone (Zone XI) by the Planning Commission, recognized for extensive rice and sugarcane farming.
Statement 1 is accurate.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Rayalaseema regional geography
Rayalaseema lies in a semi-arid rain-shadow belt receiving low average annual rainfall (~700 mm). Its terrain is dominated by red soils and black soils, making it prone to droughts rather than wet-land alluvial agriculture.
Statement 2 is inaccurate.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding mineral distribution
Tummalapalle in YSR Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh holds one of the largest confirmed reserves of uranium in India.
Statement 3 is accurate.

Key Concept

State Agriculture, Agro-Climatic Regions, and Mineral Distribution
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 177Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement of regional state history are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was a sustained non-violent peasant agitation directed against excessive taxes and forced labor imposed by local feudal landlords.; Vijay Singh Pathik was a prominent leader who organized and guided the movement during its influential second phase.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Bijolia Peasant Movement was a sustained non-violent agitation against feudal taxes and forced labor, and that Vijay Singh Pathik was a key leader during its second phase.
The Bijolia Peasant Movement (1897–1941) was a major non-violent peasant resistance in Mewar against exorbitant feudal levies and unfree labor. Vijay Singh Pathik joined the movement in 1916, providing vital organization through the Rajasthan Seva Sangh and Bijolia Kisan Panchayat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core cause and character of the Bijolia Peasant Movement.
Confirm that it was a non-violent agrarian movement against 84 types of feudal cesses (lags) and forced labor (begar) in Mewar.
Verifies statement accuracy regarding the movement's primary grievances.
2
Analyze leadership involvement in the movement.
Confirm that Vijay Singh Pathik took leadership in 1916 and mobilized the peasant masses.
Establishes the historical leadership details correctly.
3
Evaluate geographic location and origin context.
Recognize that it started in 1897 in Mewar (Bijolia), not in Marwar, and was independent of the Rowlatt Act.
Eliminates incorrect claims attributing the agitation to unrelated colonial acts or wrong administrative regions.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement and Regional Agrarian Struggles
Question 178Question →

Arrange the following major industrial and economic hubs of Tamil Nadu in geographical sequence from North to South:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct geographical sequence from North to South is Tiruvallur, followed by Salem, Tiruchirappalli, and Tirunelveli.
Tiruvallur is situated at the northern border of Tamil Nadu near Chennai. Moving southwards, Salem occupies the inland north-central region, followed by Tiruchirappalli in the central Cauvery delta basin, and finally Tirunelveli in the southern plain region.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the latitude and regional position of Tiruvallur
Tiruvallur borders Andhra Pradesh in northern Tamil Nadu (~13.1° N), placing it at the top of the sequence.
Establishing the northernmost boundary reference point.
2
Locate Salem relative to central and northern districts
Salem lies in the north-central interior plateau area (~11.6° N), south of Tiruvallur but north of the Cauvery delta.
Determining the second location in the north-south axis.
3
Identify Tiruchirappalli's position along the Cauvery basin
Tiruchirappalli is central (~10.7° N), positioned south of Salem and north of the southern plains.
Placing the central economic hub.
4
Confirm Tirunelveli's position in southern Tamil Nadu
Tirunelveli sits near the southern tip of the state (~8.7° N), completing the sequence.
Finalizing the southernmost element.

Key Concept

Geographical Distribution of State Economic and Industrial Resources
Question 179Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana' implemented by the Government of Uttar Pradesh:

1. The conditional cash grant is disbursed in six phased installments, starting from the birth of a girl child until her entry into higher education (degree or recognized diploma course).
2. The upper limit for eligible annual family income under the scheme guidelines is ₹3.00 lakh.
3. The scheme benefits are strictly restricted to a maximum of two female children per family under all circumstances, with no exception granted for twin births in a second delivery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The correct choice identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are accurate reflections of the Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana guidelines. Financial aid is released across 6 distinct life milestones from birth to higher education entry, and the annual family income threshold is set at ₹3.00 lakh. Statement 3 is false because the scheme explicitly permits benefits for a third girl child if the second delivery results in twins.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding disbursement structure.
Statement 1 is correct. The Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana grants financial aid in six progressive stages (Category I: birth, Category II: full immunization within 1 year, Category III: Class 1 admission, Category IV: Class 6 admission, Category V: Class 9 admission, Category VI: Degree/Diploma admission).
Verifying the operational framework of the scheme.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding income eligibility.
Statement 2 is correct. The annual family income ceiling to qualify for benefits under the scheme is capped at ₹3.00 lakh.
Verifying socio-economic eligibility criteria.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding family size norms and exceptions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the scheme generally limits benefits to two girl children per family, an explicit relaxation exists: if a woman gives birth to twin girls in her second delivery, all three female children are eligible for scheme benefits.
Identifying nuanced eligibility exception rules.

Key Concept

Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana eligibility criteria, stage-wise benefit structure, and special exception provisions.
Question 180Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position, legislative powers of the Governor, and state legislative procedure under the Constitution of India:

1. The discretionary power of the Governor under Article 163 to act without the advice of the Council of Ministers is absolute and completely immune from judicial review under all circumstances.
2. When a bill passed by the State Legislature is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President under Article 201, and the President directs the Governor to return the bill, the State Legislature must reconsider it within six months, and if re-passed, it is presented again directly to the President for assent.
3. Under Article 213, the Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance containing provisions that would have required the prior sanction of the President for introduction as a bill in the State Legislature without receiving instructions from the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.
The correct answer identifies that Statements 2 and 3 accurately articulate constitutional provisions under Articles 201 and 213 of the Constitution of India, whereas Statement 1 misrepresents the scope of gubernatorial discretion by claiming it is absolute and immune from judicial review.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding gubernatorial discretion under Article 163.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Although Article 163(2) states that the Governor's decision on whether a matter falls within discretion is final, the Supreme Court (e.g., in Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker and Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India) ruled that discretionary power is not arbitrary or absolute and is subject to judicial review if exercised with mala fide intent or beyond constitutional bounds.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding reservation of bills under Article 201.
Statement 2 is correct.
Under Article 201, if the President directs the Governor to return a non-money bill to the State Legislature, the House(s) must reconsider it within six months. If passed again (with or without amendment), it is presented again to the President for assent.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding conditions on ordinance making under Article 213.
Statement 3 is correct.
Under the proviso to Article 213(1), the Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without presidential instructions if a bill containing the same provisions would under the Constitution have required the previous sanction of the President for introduction.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of State Executive and Legislative Procedures
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