An obstetric patient in her second pregnancy is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 39 weeks and 4 days of gestation. Her previous pregnancy resulted in an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at term. She has a history of diet-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus. Currently, she reports painful uterine contractions that began four hours ago. She has not requested or received any systemic analgesia or regional anesthesia. Maternal temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and pulse is 82/min. A sterile cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation, 90% effacement, and the fetal vertex is at -1 station. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is applied. Over the subsequent 50 minutes, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a stable baseline of 145/min, continuous minimal variability (amplitude range of 3 to 4 beats/min), and a complete absence of both accelerations and decelerations. Uterine contractions are occurring every 4 minutes with a normal resting tone. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Digital stimulation of the fetal scalpAnswer
- BAdministration of an intravenous fluid bolus and maternal repositioning
- CPreparation for an immediate cesarean delivery
- DInitiation of a transcervical amnioinfusion
- EIntramuscular administration of terbutaline