A 34-year-old female patient (G2P2) presents for a routine gynecologic evaluation. She has no significant past medical history and takes no daily medications. Four years ago, she had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) inserted for long-term contraception. Upon questioning, she denies any lower abdominal discomfort, pain with intercourse, intermenstrual bleeding, or abnormal vaginal discharge. Vital signs are normal. On speculum examination, the vaginal vault is healthy and the cervix is grossly normal with IUD strings visualized at the external os. Bimanual examination confirms a mobile, non-tender uterus without adnexal fullness. A cervical cytology smear (Pap test) is collected. The subsequent laboratory report is negative for intraepithelial lesions and malignancy, but incidentally notes the presence of branching, filamentous organisms consistent with *Actinomyces* species. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- APrescribe a 14-day course of oral amoxicillin and leave the intrauterine device in place
- BRemove the intrauterine device and prescribe a 14-day course of oral amoxicillin
- CPerform a high-vaginal swab for anaerobic culture and sensitivities
- Reassure the patient and continue expectant managementAnswer
- ERemove the intrauterine device and send the device tip for bacterial culture