A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents due to a sudden onset of fever. She was diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) six months ago and is currently undergoing maintenance chemotherapy. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, and heart rate is /min. Physical examination reveals a pale, fatigued child with a central venous catheter in place. There is no erythema or discharge at the catheter site. Laboratory studies show an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of . Blood cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister the live-attenuated varicella vaccine to prevent viral co-infection.
- BPrescribe oral amoxicillin to align with antibiotic stewardship guidelines.
- Initiate empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics immediately.Answer
- DAwait blood culture results before initiating any antimicrobial therapy.
- EAdminister nebulized bronchodilators for a presumed viral respiratory infection.
Answer
Initiate empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics immediately.
This patient has febrile neutropenia, clinically defined as a single oral temperature of () or sustained temperature () for hour in the setting of an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) below . Because immunocompromised patients lack the white blood cells necessary to mount a standard inflammatory response, a bacterial infection can rapidly progress to life-threatening sepsis. Therefore, the immediate administration of empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics with antipseudomonal activity (such as cefepime, meropenem, or piperacillin-tazobactam) is the most critical next step immediately after obtaining blood cultures.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Febrile neutropenia is a medical emergency requiring immediate empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics (e.g., cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam) after obtaining blood cultures.
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