A -year-old gravida , para at weeks gestation is brought to the labor and delivery triage complaining of a sudden onset of intense, constant abdominal pain accompanied by a moderate amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. Her medical history is significant for chronic hypertension. Her vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Physical examination reveals a uniformly rigid and exquisitely tender uterus. A bedside ultrasound confirms a live fetus in cephalic presentation but does not visualize a retroplacental hematoma. Laboratory studies display a hemoglobin level of and a platelet count of . The continuous fetal monitor indicates a baseline heart rate of , absent variability, and recurrent late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AArtificial rupture of the fetal membranes and internal scalp monitoring
- BMaternal administration of labetalol and continuous fetal monitoring
- CTransfusion of packed red blood cells
- Emergent surgical delivery of the fetusAnswer
- EMaternal repositioning, fluid bolus, and observation for labor progression