A -year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic due to a painful swelling on his right thigh. He first noticed a "pimple" in the area days ago, which has progressively enlarged and become increasingly tender. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of mm Hg, and heart rate of /min. Physical examination of the anterior right thigh reveals a -cm, erythematous, exquisitely tender, and fluctuant mass. There is a -cm rim of surrounding erythema. No induration extending beyond the erythema is noted, and there is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Incision and drainage aloneAnswer
- BIncision and drainage followed by oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- CIncision and drainage followed by oral cephalexin
- DOral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole alone
- EWarm compresses and observation
Answer
Incision and drainage alone
The correct answer is incision and drainage alone. The patient presents with a classic cutaneous abscess (a purulent skin and soft tissue infection), characterized by a localized, fluctuant, and erythematous mass. According to standard infectious disease guidelines, a purulent infection is classified as 'mild' if there are no systemic signs of infection (e.g., fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, leukocytosis) and the patient is immunocompetent. For mild purulent infections, mechanical source control via incision and drainage is the definitive and only required treatment. Systemic antimicrobial therapy is not recommended in this scenario, as it does not significantly improve cure rates but does contribute to antimicrobial resistance and potential adverse drug effects.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of uncomplicated cutaneous abscesses requires incision and drainage alone without systemic antimicrobial therapy.