A surgical team is called to assess a 68-year-old male inpatient 48 hours following an open repair of a large ventral hernia. The patient is reporting new-onset shortness of breath that began earlier in the shift. His medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. When asked to take a deep breath, he stops abruptly and states that the maneuver causes sharp pain localized specifically around his abdominal incision. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. Physical examination reveals a well-approximated surgical site that is tender to palpation, with no surrounding erythema or purulent drainage. Jugular venous pulsation is visible 2 cm above the sternal angle. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at both lung bases. No wheezes, crackles, or cardiac murmurs are appreciated. The patient's calves are soft, non-tender, and without edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- AAdministration of intravenous furosemide
- BAdministration of systemic corticosteroids and nebulized bronchodilators
- Optimization of pain control and initiation of incentive spirometryAnswer
- DEmpiric initiation of intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- EComputed tomography angiography of the chest