An internal medicine team evaluates a patient ready for transfer out of the acute care unit. The patient, a resident of an assisted living facility, presented 72 hours ago with profound chills, vomiting, and right-sided back pain. She was hemodynamically stable but highly symptomatic, prompting the initiation of empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Currently, she has been afebrile for 24 hours, her vital signs are within normal limits, and she is comfortably eating a regular diet. Microbiological analysis of both blood and urine samples collected on admission reveals heavy growth () of *Enterococcus faecalis*. Susceptibility testing confirms the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, amoxicillin, vancomycin, and nitrofurantoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- AInitiate oral nitrofurantoin therapy
- BInitiate oral ciprofloxacin therapy
- CContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam therapy
- Initiate oral amoxicillin therapyAnswer
- ESwitch to intravenous vancomycin therapy