A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son because he has been acting confused since yesterday morning. For the past three days, he has also experienced subjective fevers, chills, and a cough productive of yellowish sputum. His medical history includes hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and osteoarthritis. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit substances. His temperature is (), pulse is , blood pressure is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry indicates an oxygen saturation of on room air. He appears acutely ill and is oriented only to person. Pulmonary auscultation reveals crackles and bronchial breath sounds over the left lower lung fields. Laboratory evaluation is notable for a leukocyte count of and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of . Chest radiography demonstrates a dense left lower lobe consolidation. The patient is admitted to the general medical ward. Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycinAnswer
- BOral amoxicillin-clavulanate and azithromycin
- CIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- DIntravenous ciprofloxacin
- EOral amoxicillin