A -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her vital signs on admission are temperature (), blood pressure mm Hg, and pulse /min. Cervical examination shows cm dilation, effacement, and station. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of /min with moderate variability, spontaneous accelerations, and no decelerations. Uterine contractions occur every to minutes. The patient requests pain management, and a continuous epidural infusion of bupivacaine and fentanyl is initiated. Twenty minutes later, the patient reports feeling lightheaded and nauseated. Her blood pressure is now mm Hg and pulse is /min. Simultaneously, the fetal heart rate baseline drops to /min with minimal variability and has remained at this rate for the past minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous vasopressor administrationAnswer
- BUrgent surgical delivery
- CSubcutaneous terbutaline injection
- DTransvaginal amnioinfusion
- EContinued observation with maternal reassurance