A 34-year-old gravida 2, para 2 woman comes to the office for a routine wellness examination. She has no current medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Her only form of contraception is a copper intrauterine device, which was placed three years ago. The patient reports normal, regular menstrual cycles and denies any vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, or dyspareunia. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia and a healthy-appearing cervix. The intrauterine device strings are visible at the external cervical os. Bimanual examination shows a non-tender, anteverted uterus with no adnexal masses. A Papanicolaou test is performed. One week later, the cytology report indicates negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy, but notes the presence of Actinomyces-like organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Reassure the patient and leave the intrauterine device in placeAnswer
- BPrescribe a 14-day course of oral amoxicillin
- CRemove the intrauterine device and prescribe oral amoxicillin
- DAdminister intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- EPerform an endometrial biopsy to evaluate for endometritis