A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use is admitted to the intensive care unit with a 4-day history of high fever, chills, and pleuritic chest pain. On physical examination, his temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 22/min. Cardiovascular examination reveals a 3/6 holosystolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border that increases in intensity with inspiration. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin and cefepime is initiated after blood cultures are drawn.
On hospital day 3, the patient develops acute respiratory distress. His oxygen saturation drops to 86% on room air. A chest radiograph reveals multiple bilateral nodular opacities with central cavitation. Echocardiography shows a 1.5-cm, highly mobile vegetation on the tricuspid valve with moderate tricuspid regurgitation. The left ventricular ejection fraction is 60%. All four blood culture bottles return positive for methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Switch to intravenous nafcillinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- CAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide and inhaled albuterol
- ESwitch to oral linezolid