An adult male patient is evaluated during morning rounds on the surgical ward. He is currently on postoperative day 3 following an emergent partial colectomy for a perforated diverticulum. At the time of presentation, he met criteria for sepsis and was empirically started on intravenous meropenem. His clinical course has steadily improved following source control. Today, his temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, and pulse is 76/min. He is tolerating a soft diet, and his bowel function has returned. His white blood cell count has decreased from 18,000/mm³ on admission to 8,500/mm³. Intraoperative peritoneal fluid cultures now demonstrate heavy growth of Escherichia coli and Bacteroides fragilis. Susceptibility testing for the E. coli isolate shows resistance to ampicillin but susceptibility to ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Admission blood cultures have remained sterile. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Transition to oral ciprofloxacin and oral metronidazoleAnswer
- BContinue intravenous meropenem
- CTransition to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DTransition to oral ciprofloxacin
- ETransition to intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous metronidazole