A 62-year-old man is evaluated on the general medical ward on his third day of hospitalization. He was initially admitted for fever, right-sided flank pain, and leukocytosis. Blood and urine cultures were drawn, and he was started on empirical intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam for suspected complicated pyelonephritis. His past medical history is notable for benign prostatic hyperplasia and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The patient has been afebrile for the past 24 hours, and his flank pain has largely resolved. He is currently kept strictly nil per os (NPO) in preparation for an elective esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) scheduled in 2 hours to evaluate chronic dyspepsia.
Both the admission blood and urine cultures are now positive for *Klebsiella pneumoniae*. The susceptibility report for the isolate is as follows:
Ampicillin: Resistant
Cefazolin: Susceptible
Ceftazidime: Susceptible
Ceftriaxone: Susceptible
Ciprofloxacin: Susceptible
Meropenem: Susceptible
Piperacillin-tazobactam: Susceptible
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the patient's pharmacologic management?
- AContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- BSwitch to intravenous meropenem
- CSwitch to oral ciprofloxacin
- Switch to intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- ESwitch to intravenous ceftazidime