Match the following classic infectious disease clinical presentations with the most appropriate first-line antimicrobial therapy.
- A 20-year-old college student with fever, neck stiffness, and cerebrospinal fluid analysis revealing gram-negative diplococci.Intravenous ceftriaxone
- A 30-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester who presents with an expanding targetoid rash (erythema migrans) after a tick bite.Oral amoxicillin
- A 45-year-old man with an indurated, painless ulcer on his penis and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.Intramuscular penicillin G benzathine
- A 25-year-old woman with dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and a positive nitrite test on urinalysis, with no fever or flank pain.Oral nitrofurantoin
Answer
Gram-negative diplococci (meningitis) pairs with IV ceftriaxone. Lyme disease in pregnancy pairs with oral amoxicillin. Primary syphilis pairs with IM penicillin G benzathine. Uncomplicated cystitis pairs with oral nitrofurantoin.
Each clinical scenario presents a classic infectious disease that requires a specific first-line antimicrobial. Meningococcal meningitis requires CNS-penetrating IV ceftriaxone. Lyme disease in pregnancy requires amoxicillin to avoid tetracycline teratogenicity. Primary syphilis is definitively treated with IM penicillin G benzathine. Uncomplicated cystitis is safely managed with oral nitrofurantoin.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Selection of first-line targeted antimicrobial therapy for common infectious diseases while accounting for patient-specific contraindications.