A 68-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 6 following an elective right inguinal hernia repair. On postoperative day 3, he developed a cough, fever, and right-sided chest pain. A chest radiograph at that time revealed a right lower lobe infiltrate. Sputum cultures grew *Streptococcus pneumoniae* sensitive to ceftriaxone, and he was appropriately started on targeted intravenous ceftriaxone therapy. Today, the patient reports worsening dyspnea and persistent pleuritic chest pain. His temperature has spiked to (). Blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 26/min. Pulse oximetry shows 91% on room air. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion at the right lung base. Jugular venous pressure is 6 cm H O, and there is no lower extremity edema.
An arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | 7.28 |
| pCO | 54 mmHg |
| pO | 62 mmHg |
| HCO | 24 mEq/L |
A repeat chest radiograph demonstrates the known right lower lobe infiltrate and a new, moderate-sized, free-flowing right pleural effusion. A diagnostic thoracentesis is performed, yielding cloudy yellow fluid.
Pleural fluid analysis shows:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| pH | 7.12 |
| Glucose | 32 mg/dL |
| Lactate dehydrogenase | 1,250 U/L |
| Gram stain | Gram-positive diplococci |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient care?
- Placement of a tube thoracostomyAnswer
- BTransition to intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CAdministration of nebulized albuterol and intravenous furosemide
- DCalculation of expected respiratory compensation using Winter's formula
- ELower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography