An active 71-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic to discuss surgical intervention for severe pelvic organ prolapse. She has a history of five vaginal deliveries. Over the past year, she has experienced a bothersome vaginal bulge and a sensation of pelvic heaviness that worsens after prolonged standing. She occasionally has to apply manual pressure to her perineum to initiate voiding. Two months ago, a trial of conservative management with a vaginal ring pessary was attempted but was discontinued because the patient experienced recurrent dislodgment and discomfort. She currently denies any involuntary leakage of urine with coughing, laughing, or physical exertion. Vital signs are within normal limits. Body mass index is . Pelvic examination in the supine position reveals an anterior vaginal wall prolapse that descends beyond the hymen during the Valsalva maneuver. The apical and posterior vaginal compartments are well supported. Post-void residual volume is . The patient is eager to proceed with surgical repair. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Urodynamic evaluation with temporary reduction of the prolapseAnswer
- BConcurrent midurethral sling placement during the prolapse repair
- CInitiation of a seven-day course of oral ciprofloxacin
- DReferral for intensive pelvic floor physical therapy
- ECommencement of daily oral tolterodine