A 31-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for a trial of labor after a prior low transverse cesarean delivery. She is receiving an intravenous oxytocin infusion for labor augmentation. Her most recent cervical examination 1 hour ago showed 7 cm dilation, 90% effacement, and the fetal head at +1 station. The patient suddenly reports intense, tearing lower abdominal pain that radiates to her chest. The intrauterine pressure catheter shows a sudden loss of baseline uterine tone and the cessation of regular contractions. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a prolonged deceleration to 75/min. On repeat pelvic examination, the cervix is unchanged, but the fetal presenting part is now ballotable at -2 station. Her blood pressure is 85/45 mm Hg, and her pulse is 125/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Proceed to emergency laparotomyAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- CPlace the patient in the left lateral decubitus position and administer a fluid bolus
- DPerform bedside transabdominal ultrasonography
- EPerform an operative vaginal delivery