During a routine wellness check, a patient reports noticing small amounts of dark blood on her toilet tissue over the past week. Review of her medical record confirms she is nulliparous, has a body mass index of , and experienced her final menstrual period eight years ago. A pelvic examination reveals a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault with a visually normal cervix and no vaginal lacerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Perform an endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BAdvise observation and re-evaluation if bleeding worsens
- CObtain a serum follicle-stimulating hormone level
- DInitiate therapy with combined oral contraceptives
- EPrescribe a course of empirical oral antibiotics
Answer
Perform an endometrial biopsy
The correct approach for any patient with postmenopausal bleeding is to immediately rule out endometrial cancer. This patient also possesses significant risk factors, including obesity (which increases the peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens in adipose tissue) and nulliparity, both of which lead to prolonged unopposed estrogen exposure. Performing an endometrial biopsy provides a direct tissue sample to check for hyperplasia or carcinoma and is an unequivocally appropriate first step in management.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Any vaginal bleeding in a postmenopausal woman must be thoroughly investigated with an endometrial biopsy or transvaginal ultrasound to definitively rule out endometrial carcinoma.