A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit at 40 weeks and 2 days of gestation. She was admitted 6 hours ago in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Admission laboratory values demonstrated a hemoglobin concentration of and a leukocyte count of . Epidural analgesia was administered, and an artificial rupture of membranes was performed at 5 centimeters of cervical dilation, yielding clear fluid.
Currently, the patient's blood pressure is , pulse is , and temperature is (). Uterine contractions occur every 3 to 4 minutes, lasting 50 seconds, with normal intensity upon palpation. Cervical examination reveals 8 centimeters of dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetal vertex at 0 station. Fetal monitoring demonstrates a baseline heart rate of with moderate variability and no accelerations. Over the last 40 minutes, the cardiotocograph has shown abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to , lasting 45 to 60 seconds before rapidly returning to baseline. These decreases are noted during approximately 60% of the uterine contractions. Maternal repositioning to the left lateral decubitus position, an intravenous normal saline bolus, and supplemental oxygen administration have been implemented, but the fetal heart rate pattern remains unchanged.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Transcervical amnioinfusionAnswer
- BEmergent Cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of a uterine tocolytic agent
- DForceps-assisted vaginal delivery
- ETransfusion of packed red blood cells