Question

An uncomplicated pregnancy in a primigravid patient progresses to spontaneous labor at $38$ weeks and $2$ days of gestation. Upon admission to the obstetric triage unit, maternal vital signs are stable, and the cervix is dilated to $5\text{ cm}$ and $100\%$ effaced. Uterine contractions occur every $3$ minutes. Shortly after admission, the amniotic membranes spontaneously rupture, revealing a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Concurrent evaluation of the cardiotocogram reveals a smooth, undulating fetal heart rate baseline of $140/\text{min}$, oscillating with an amplitude of $15/\text{min}$ and a frequency of $4$ cycles per minute. Baseline variability is otherwise absent, and no accelerations or decelerations are visualized. The patient has not received any systemic opioids or local anesthetics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?