A -year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for a persistent fever. He was admitted days ago for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and required endotracheal intubation on the second day of admission. Four days ago, he developed a new fever, worsening oxygenation, and thick endotracheal secretions. Blood and lower respiratory tract cultures were obtained, and empiric therapy with intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin was initiated. Today, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and leukocyte count is . Blood cultures have remained sterile. The endotracheal aspirate culture grows \textit{Enterobacter cloacae}. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing shows the isolate is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem, but resistant to ampicillin and cefazolin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Intravenous cefepime monotherapyAnswer
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone monotherapy
- CIntravenous meropenem monotherapy
- DIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam monotherapy
- EContinue the current empiric regimen