A -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department due to rapidly progressive shortness of breath, palpitations, and hemoptysis that began hours ago. She reports a sense of overwhelming anxiety and impending doom. She has a history of bipolar I disorder, currently well-controlled on lamotrigine, and mild intermittent asthma since childhood. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate is /min. Oxygen saturation is on room air and improves to on supplemental oxygen.
Physical examination reveals prominent jugular venous pulsations with absent 'a' waves. Pulmonary auscultation reveals bilateral crackles up to the mid-scapulae with scattered expiratory wheezes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a loud first heart sound, a high-frequency sound in early diastole, and a low-pitched mid-diastolic sound best heard at the apex in the left lateral decubitus position.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister nebulized albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone
- BInitiate oral sertraline and refer for outpatient psychiatric evaluation
- Administer intravenous metoprolol and furosemideAnswer
- DAdminister intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- EReassure the patient and recommend elevating her legs at night