A 68-year-old man is evaluated on hospital day 3 for management of community-acquired pneumonia. He was admitted with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and shortness of breath. On admission, chest radiography revealed a left lower lobe infiltrate. He was started on empiric intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous azithromycin. Today, his cough and shortness of breath have significantly improved. He is tolerating a regular diet well. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Oxygen saturation is on ambient air. A sputum culture obtained on admission grew *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is susceptible to penicillin, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, and levofloxacin, but resistant to azithromycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antimicrobial therapy?
- Discontinue current antibiotics and begin oral amoxicillinAnswer
- BDiscontinue current antibiotics and begin oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- CDiscontinue current antibiotics and begin oral levofloxacin
- DDiscontinue azithromycin and continue intravenous ceftriaxone
- EContinue intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous azithromycin