A 62-year-old woman comes to the urgent care clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath over the last 2 days. She has a 40-pack-year smoking history and was diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) 5 years ago. She uses a daily fluticasone/salmeterol inhaler and a tiotropium inhaler. Her home oxygen saturation is usually 93% on room air. Over the past 48 hours, she has noticed increased cough and a larger volume of sputum, which remains clear to white. She has had no fever, orthopnea, or lower extremity edema. Temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 22/min. Pulse oximetry is 91% on room air. Pulmonary examination shows a prolonged expiratory phase with scattered wheezes bilaterally. Cardiovascular examination is normal with no murmurs, gallops, or jugular venous distention. There is no peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AOral prednisone, nebulized albuterol, and oral azithromycin
- BEmpiric oral levofloxacin and nebulized albuterol
- Oral prednisone and nebulized albuterolAnswer
- DIntravenous furosemide and serum brain natriuretic peptide measurement
- EArterial blood gas analysis to calculate metabolic compensation using Winter's formula