A 31-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe, continuous abdominal pain and moderate dark vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy is complicated by chronic hypertension, for which she takes labetalol. Her blood pressure is 165/100 mm Hg, and her pulse is 115/min. On physical examination, the uterus is hypertonic, rigid, and exquisitely tender to palpation. Fetal monitoring reveals a baseline heart rate of 165/min with minimal variability and recurrent late decelerations. The tocodynamometer demonstrates high-frequency, low-amplitude contractions. Maternal repositioning, supplemental oxygen, and an intravenous fluid bolus have been administered, but the fetal heart rate tracing remains unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdministration of magnesium sulfate
- BPelvic ultrasound to evaluate placental location
- Emergency cesarean deliveryAnswer
- DAmnioinfusion
- EAdministration of oxytocin