A primary care physician is evaluating a 5-year-old boy during a scheduled health maintenance visit prior to kindergarten entry. The patient was diagnosed with minimal change disease at age and recently developed a relapse characterized by heavy proteinuria and periorbital edema. To manage this flare, he has been receiving daily oral prednisone therapy at a dose of for the past weeks. Today, the child feels well, and his edema has significantly improved. Vital signs are within normal limits. A review of his immunization records indicates he is due for his 4- to 6-year vaccine series, including the fifth dose of diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP); fourth dose of inactivated poliovirus (IPV); second dose of measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR); and second dose of varicella vaccines. Which of the following is the most appropriate action regarding this patient's immunizations today?
- Administer DTaP and IPV today; defer MMR and varicella vaccines until at least 1 month after the discontinuation of prednisoneAnswer
- BAdminister DTaP, IPV, MMR, and varicella vaccines today
- CDefer all vaccines today and reschedule them for at least 1 month after the discontinuation of prednisone
- DAdminister DTaP and IPV today; defer MMR and varicella vaccines until the prednisone dose is tapered below 20 mg/day
- EAdminister DTaP, IPV, and varicella vaccines today; defer the MMR vaccine until the discontinuation of prednisone