A 72-year-old man is hospitalized due to 3 weeks of progressive fatigue, low-grade fevers, and shortness of breath with exertion. Six weeks ago, he underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), pulse is 94/min, blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and respirations are 18/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals a new grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur loudest at the apex with radiation to the axilla. Examination of the extremities shows splinter hemorrhages under the fingernails of both hands.
Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count: 14,500/mm³
Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dL
Platelets: 130,000/mm³
Blood urea nitrogen: 42 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.1 mg/dL)
Transesophageal echocardiography demonstrates a 1.4-cm oscillating vegetation on the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve with moderate-to-severe mitral regurgitation. Empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin and gentamicin is initiated. Two days later, three sets of blood cultures drawn prior to antibiotic administration are positive for *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, penicillin, and vancomycin, and exhibits no high-level resistance to gentamicin. The patient remains hemodynamically stable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- AContinue intravenous vancomycin and gentamicin
- Switch to intravenous ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- CSwitch to intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- DSwitch to intravenous ampicillin monotherapy
- ESwitch to intravenous daptomycin and linezolid
Answer
Historically, the standard of care was ampicillin combined with an aminoglycoside (gentamicin). However, gentamicin is highly nephrotoxic. This patient has developed an acute kidney injury (serum creatinine increased from 1.1 mg/dL to 2.1 mg/dL). In patients with impaired renal function, the combination of ampicillin and ceftriaxone is the definitively preferred regimen. Ceftriaxone saturates specific PBPs (PBP2 and PBP3) that ampicillin does not effectively target, forcing the bacteria to rely on PBP5, which is then overwhelmed by ampicillin. This dual-beta-lactam therapy provides excellent bactericidal synergy against *E. faecalis* without the severe risk of aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity.