A 29-year-old primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her cervical examination reveals she is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Over the next hour, the fetal heart rate tracing reveals recurrent late decelerations with absent variability. The physician informs the patient that the fetus is in severe distress and strongly recommends an emergent Cesarean delivery to prevent irreversible fetal brain injury or demise. The patient is calm, fully alert, and able to accurately repeat the risks of fetal injury and death. However, she adamantly refuses any surgical intervention, stating that her deeply held personal beliefs prohibit surgery, and insists on continuing with a vaginal delivery. The patient's husband, who is at the bedside, becomes highly distressed and begs the medical team to perform the surgery to save their baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Respect the patient's decision, provide supportive care, and continue expectant management of the laborAnswer
- BObtain informed consent from the patient's husband to authorize the emergency surgery
- CSeek an emergent court order to mandate the Cesarean delivery for the benefit of the fetus
- DTransfer the patient to the operating room for surgery under the emergency doctrine of implied consent
- EAdminister a tocolytic agent and perform an amnioinfusion to resolve the fetal heart rate decelerations