A 76-year-old male presents to the emergency department reporting five days of progressively worsening shortness of breath, increased volume of yellow sputum, and new swelling in both of his legs. His medical history includes severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a myocardial infarction six years ago.
Vital signs show a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg, pulse of 112/min, and respirations of 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles. The jugular venous pressure is visibly elevated to 11 cm . Cardiac auscultation shows distant heart sounds and a regular tachycardia without murmurs or gallops. Lung auscultation reveals prolonged expiration with diffuse expiratory wheezes, but no crackles are present. Bilateral 2+ pitting edema is noted up to the knees.
A chest radiograph demonstrates hyperinflated lungs, flattened diaphragms, and prominent central pulmonary arteries without alveolar infiltrates or pleural effusions. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia, right axis deviation, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
Assuming a diagnosis of acute decompensated heart failure due to his cardiac history and volume overload status, the treating physician administers a dose of intravenous furosemide. Sixty minutes later, the patient becomes acutely confused. Repeat vital signs show a blood pressure of 72/45 mmHg and a pulse of 128/min.
Which of the following is the most likely primary mechanism for this patient's acute clinical deterioration?
- Excessive reduction in right ventricular preloadAnswer
- BAcute elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
- CExacerbation of leftward interventricular septal bowing
- DRapid onset of severe metabolic alkalosis
- EWorsening of ventilation-perfusion mismatch