A 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department via ambulance with sudden-onset, severe respiratory distress that woke him from sleep minutes ago. He has a history of poorly controlled essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and respirations are /min. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. He is diaphoretic, speaking in one-word sentences, and using accessory muscles of respiration. Jugular venous distention is present when sitting upright. Auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezes and bibasilar crackles. Cardiac examination shows regular tachycardia with a prominent S3 gallop. The electrocardiogram displays sinus tachycardia and voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy without ischemic ST-segment or T-wave changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous nitroglycerin and furosemideAnswer
- BAdminister nebulized albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone
- CAdminister intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- DAdminister intravenous metoprolol
- EPerform immediate computed tomography angiography of the chest