A 26-year-old man is brought to the outpatient psychiatric clinic by his sister due to severe depressive symptoms for the past 3 weeks. He reports sleeping 14 hours a day, profound fatigue, and an inability to experience pleasure. Two years ago, he had a distinct episode of severe grandiosity, racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, and auditory hallucinations commanding him to "lead the world." This prior episode lasted for exactly 3 weeks before remitting completely. He was recently prescribed selegiline for his low mood by a different provider, but he stopped taking it 2 days ago because he felt it was not working. His vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals psychomotor retardation and a blunted affect, but no current psychosis. Laboratory studies show a TSH of 2.8 µU/mL (normal: 0.4-4.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Initiate quetiapine therapyAnswer
- BInitiate fluoxetine monotherapy
- CRestart selegiline and initiate citalopram
- DInitiate levothyroxine therapy
- EInitiate long-acting injectable haloperidol