A 68-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward due to worsening respiratory distress. He is currently on his third postoperative day following a partial colectomy with primary anastomosis for a localized colon adenocarcinoma. His medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, a 35-pack-year smoking history, and an anterior wall myocardial infarction three years ago. Since the operation, he has been receiving intravenous lactated Ringer solution at a continuous rate of 125 mL/h.
His temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min and regular, and respirations are 26/min. Pulse oximetry reveals an oxygen saturation of 88% while breathing ambient air.
Physical examination shows a distressed patient sitting on the edge of the bed and using accessory muscles of respiration. Inspection of the neck reveals distension of the jugular veins when the patient is reclined at a 45-degree angle. Pulmonary auscultation demonstrates bilateral coarse crackles in the lower two-thirds of the lung fields, accompanied by scattered expiratory wheezes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia, normal S1 and S2, and a low-frequency diastolic sound heard best at the cardiac apex. The surgical incision is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema. The bilateral lower extremities exhibit 1+ pitting edema.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's respiratory distress?
- Administration of intravenous furosemideAnswer
- BAdministration of inhaled albuterol and intravenous corticosteroids
- CComputed tomography pulmonary angiography
- DInitiation of empiric vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- EReassurance and increased frequency of incentive spirometry