A patient at 40 weeks gestation (G1P0) is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for labor augmentation with intravenous oxytocin. She is 28 years old, and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. She is utilizing epidural anesthesia for pain management. Her cervix is currently 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at -1 station. Over the past 30 minutes, the fetal heart rate monitor displays a baseline of 150/min. The amplitude of the peak-to-trough fetal heart rate fluctuations is 3 to 5 beats per minute. There are recurrent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of each uterine contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends. Tocodynamometry reveals 7 contractions per 10-minute period, averaged over the last 30 minutes, with each contraction lasting 60 to 80 seconds. In response to these findings, the oxytocin infusion is promptly discontinued, the patient is placed in the left lateral decubitus position, and a 500-mL intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer solution is administered. Fifteen minutes later, the contraction frequency remains unchanged, and the fetal heart rate tracing continues to demonstrate the same pattern of recurrent decelerations with minimal fluctuations. Maternal vital signs are blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, pulse 88/min, and temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous terbutalineAnswer
- BProceed to emergent cesarean delivery
- CPerform an amnioinfusion
- DAdminister intravenous ephedrine
- EAdminister intravenous magnesium sulfate