A 67-year-old retired mechanic is evaluated in the emergency department for severe shortness of breath that has progressively worsened over the past 48 hours. He has a medical history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (ejection fraction 40%), atrial fibrillation, and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to a 50 pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , respiratory rate is , and oxygen saturation is on room air. The patient is lethargic but arousable and is using accessory muscles of respiration. Physical examination reveals a prolonged expiratory phase with diffuse polyphonic wheezing bilaterally. There are no crackles. The jugular venous pressure is . Cardiac examination shows an irregularly irregular rhythm without murmurs. Bilateral lower extremities have trace pitting edema that the patient states is his baseline. A portable chest radiograph shows hyperinflated lung fields and flattened diaphragms, without focal opacities or pleural effusions. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air reveals:
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Recent outpatient laboratories from one week ago showed a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of (normal: 0.5-5.0) and a free T4 of (normal: 0.9-1.7). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient's acute respiratory distress?
- Initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation and administer inhaled bronchodilatorsAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide and nitroglycerin
- CAdminister empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister an intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
- EInitiate intravenous levothyroxine for presumed primary hypothyroidism